Answer:
The correct answer is: Option; premium or option price.
Explanation:
As the name implies, an option refers to the right that is given to a potential buyer of capital goods to exercise currency trading within a specified time and amount. To carry out this process, an in-depth study must be carried out in order to make the best investment decision, for the benefit of both parties.
For its part, the price of the premium or option refers to the amount paid by the buyer in order to exercise the legitimate right over the capital asset. The premium corresponds to the value paid in excess and that represents a higher value for the seller within market estimates.
The option included in the M2 definition of money supply and not in the M1 definition is money market mutual fund shares.
<h3>What is M2?</h3>
M2 definition of money supply that includes cash, checking deposits, and near money. M2 is a broader measure of the money supply when compared with M1. It also less liquid than M1. M1 includes includes cash and checking deposits.
Here are the options:
a. Checkable deposits.
b. Currency held in banks.
c. Currency in circulation.
d. Money market mutual fund shares.
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Answer: See explanation
Explanation:
1. Calculate the first year's net earnings under the cash basis of accounting, and the first year's net earnings under the accrual basis of accounting.
The first year's net earnings under the cash basis of accounting will be:
Service revenue = $23400
Less: Expenses = $14310
Net income = $9090
The first year's net earnings under the accrual basis of accounting will be:
Service revenue = $29500
Less: Expenses = $15500
Net income = $14000
2. Which basis of accounting (cash or accrual) provides more useful information for decision-makers?
It should be noted that the accrual basis of accounting gives decision makers more useful information. This is due to the fact that the decision makers will probably want to know the revenue and the expenses that were incurred for a particular period and every other necessary details.
Answer:
16.59%
Explanation:
We are given the present value of the bonds, their future value and the time, we need to calculate the rate:
FV = PV (1 + rate)ⁿ
- FV = 100,000
- PV = 999.38
- n = 30
100,000 = 999.38 (1 + rate)³⁰
(1 + rate)³⁰ = 100,000 / 999.38 = 100.062
1 + rate = ³⁰√100.062 = 1.1659
rate = 1.1659 - 1 = 0.1659 or 16.59%
Answer and Explanation:
The Journal entry is shown below:-
On November 2022
Cash Dr, $193,200 (6,900 × $28)
To Unearned Subscription Revenue $193,200
(Being the receipt of the subscriptions is recorded)
Therefore to record the receipt of the subscriptions we simply debited the cash as it increased the assets and we credited the unearned subscription revenues as increased the liability so that the correct posting could be done
