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Anna71 [15]
1 year ago
14

Which of the following is included in the M-2 definition of the money supply but NOT in the M-1 definition?

Business
1 answer:
Komok [63]1 year ago
3 0

The option included in the M2 definition of money supply and not in the M1 definition is money market mutual fund shares.

<h3>What is M2?</h3>

M2 definition of money supply that includes cash, checking deposits, and near money. M2 is a broader measure of the money supply  when compared with M1. It also less liquid than M1. M1 includes includes cash and checking deposits.

Here are the options:

a. Checkable deposits.

b. Currency held in banks.

c. Currency in circulation.

d. Money market mutual fund shares.

To learn more about M2, please check: brainly.com/question/13784664

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Carmie Iria, the director of a systems project committee, has received management approval for the implementation of a new accou
Elena L [17]

Answer: B. a turnkey system

Explanation: A turnkey system is a system that has been customized for a particular application. It can also be said that it is a ready to run system.

It is a complete computer system that include a hardware, operating system and application(s) designed and sold to satisfy specific business requirements.

An example of a turnkey system is a system designed for an organisation that includes software and hardware for its employees to work with.

7 0
3 years ago
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"A retired customer that has a portfolio of blue chip stocks is looking to supplement his retirement income. An appropriate reco
NeTakaya

Answer: sell covered calls

Explanation:

A retired customer that has a portfolio of blue chip stocks is looking to supplement his retirement income. An appropriate recommendation would be to sell covered calls.

It should be noted that a covered call is a financial transaction that takes place when a call option is sold by an investor even though the investor still owns part of the security based on what's sold.

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3 years ago
A manager's operation had sales this period of $89,775. last period sales were $85,500. what was the manager's percentage sales
alexandr402 [8]

A manager's operation had sales this period of $89,775. last period sales were $85,500. So the manager's percentage sales increase for this period when compared to last period was 5% .

The percentage increase is the measure of the percentage change. The percentage increase is defined as the ratio of increased value to the original value and then multiplied by 100. Here the increased value can be calculated by taking the difference between the final value and the initial value. The formula to calculate increase is given by -

Percentage Increase = [(Final value – Original value) × 100] / Original value %

In this case,  original value is $85500 and the final value is $89775, then the percentage increase is:

Percentage Increase = [(89775-85500) ×100]/85500

= 427500/85500

= 5%

So, the percentage increase  will be 5% .

To learn more about percentage increase here

brainly.com/question/23040788

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5 0
1 year ago
Compared to a purely competitive firm in long run equilibrium, the monpolistic competitor has a?
Airida [17]

Compared to a purely competitive firm in long-run equilibrium, the monopolistic competitor has a higher price and lower output.

<h3>When a monopolistic competitive firm is in long-run equilibrium?</h3>

Long Run Monopolistic Competition Equilibrium: Over the long run, a company in a market with the monopolistic competition will produce several items at the point where the long-run marginal cost (LRMC) curve crosses the marginal revenue curve (MR). Where the quantity produced lies on the average revenue (AR) curve will determine the pricing.

<h3>What ultimately transpires to a monopolistic rival?</h3>

Long-term economic gains or losses in monopolistic competition will be removed by entry or leave, leaving firms with no economic gains. There will be some excess capacity in a monopolistically competitive business; this could be seen as the price paid for the variety of products that this market structure brings about.

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3 0
1 year ago
The 20% off sale is a better deal than the $200 rebate or $150 coupon for the $1,500 dining set. The Porters budgeted $1,250 for
vovikov84 [41]

Answer:20% off is better and it is the only offer which is under the budget.

Explanation:Given,

The original cost of the dining set = $ 1,500,

If there is a off of 20%,

Then the discount on dinning table = 20% of 1500

= $ 300

So, the final amount of the dinning table after 20% off = 1500 - 300 = 1200 < 1250

Thus, it under the budget.

Now, in $ 200 rebate,

The new cost of the dinning table = 1500 - 200 = $ 1300 > 1250,

Thus, it is not under budget.

While, In $150 coupon,

The new cost of the dinning table = 1500 - 150 = $ 1350 > 1250,

Thus, it is not under budget.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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