Answer: D. All of the above are correct.
Explanation:
The marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS) refers to the economic theory which explains the rate at which a particular factor of production must reduce in order for the same level of productivity to be maintained when there's another production factor which is increased.
When the capital is plotted on the vertical axis and labor is plotted along the horizontal axis, then the marginal rate of technical substitution of labor for capital along a convex isoquant will reduce as more and more labor is used. Also, the MRTS equals the negative of the slope of the isoquant and equals the marginal product of labor divided by the marginal product of capital that's MRTSL,K=-MPL/MPK
Therefore, the correct option is All of the above.
Answer:
Given the supply of land is perfectly inelastic, the drop in prices must have resulted from decreased demand for land. The demand for land would fall if there were less of a return on the land (i.e., rent), so we can safely assume that land rent fell in Japan between 1990 and 2001. The shifts from D3 to D2 to D1 demonstrate graphically what happened in Japan.
Explanation:
Answer:
Manufacturing overhead volume variance= $1,200 unfavorable
Explanation:
<u>First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:</u>
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Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Fixed Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 1,200,000/240,000
Fixed Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $5 per machine hour
<u>Now, to calculate the fixed manufacturing overhead volume variance, we need to use the following formula:</u>
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Manufacturing overhead volume variance = Actual Factory Overhead - Budgeted Allowance Based on Standard Hours
Manufacturing overhead volume variance= (101,200) - (5*20,000)
Manufacturing overhead volume variance= $1,200 unfavorable
Answer:
Explanation:
The formula to compute the free cash flow of the firm is shown below:
= EBIT × (1 -Tax Rate) + Depreciation & Amortization - Change in Net Working Capital - net capital Expenditure
In this we deduct the changes in net capital and net capital expenditure and added the depreciation and amortization expenses to the Earning after tax so that the correct amount can be computed
Answer: Debit Bad debt expense $7,300; Credit Allowance for doubtful accounts $7,300.
Explanation: 5% of accounts receivable of $190,000 is $9,500. Remember the credit balance in Allowance for uncollectible accounts is $2,200 prior to any adjustment and this reports to the balance sheet. To reinstate this account to the required provision for uncollectible amount of $9,500, we need to adjust for the difference (that is, $9,500 minus $2,200 existing balance), which is $7,300. <u>Then, the entries above would be recorded. </u>
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