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igomit [66]
3 years ago
15

PLEASE HELP ASAPPPPP I WILL DO BRAINLISET TOO

Mathematics
1 answer:
Aleks04 [339]3 years ago
5 0

The distance between the points is 10.4

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Subtract the fractions and reduce to lowest terms: 89 - 6 2/3
Ksju [112]

Answer:

88 3/3 - 6 2/3 = 82 1/3

this is how we subract the fraction

6 0
3 years ago
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Statistics: Hypothesis Testing
Lina20 [59]

Answer:

Yes, the mean age of onset of anorexia nervosa in women has decreased.

Step-by-step explanation:

When constructing confidence intervals, remember the acronym PANIC.

P (p definitions)

let p = the newly recorded mean age of the onset of anorexia nervosa in women

A (assumptions)

There is no evidence in the problem that the women were randomly or independently selected, but we will proceed as if they were. It is reasonable to assume that there are over 200 women in the world, so this sample is less than 10% of the total population. We will assume that the onset of anorexia nervosa has a fairly normal distribution, so the smaller sample size will suffice.

N (name the test)

Because the required conditions are met, we can construct a 95% confidence interval.

I (interval)

Interval = \overline{x} \pm Z^{*} (\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n} })

Interval = 14.250 \pm 1.96 (\frac{1.512}{\sqrt{20} })

Interval = 14.250 \pm .6626

Interval = (13.5874, 14.9126)

C (conclusion)

Based on this interval, I am 95% confident that the true mean age of the onset of anorexia nervosa in women is between 13.58 and 14.91 years. Since 15 is not included in this interval, I believe that the mean age of the onset of anorexia nervosa in women has decreased.

3 0
4 years ago
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The distributive property only works when the operation
lesya692 [45]

Answer:

False

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
PLEASE MATH HELP WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
andrew11 [14]

the correct answer should be c

5 0
4 years ago
Please write your answer below!!!
nevsk [136]
Here, just substitute the value of y from 1st equation into 2nd equation, 
x - 1/4 y = -1
x - 1/4 (4x - 4) = -1
x - (x - 1) = -1
x - x = -1 + 1
0 = 0
L.H.S = R.H.S

As both sides are equal, the system of equation has "Infinite many solution"

Hope this helps!
6 0
3 years ago
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