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Anvisha [2.4K]
3 years ago
13

Ben and Jerry were shareholders of Water Ice Inc., an S corp. On Jan. 1, 1998, Ben owned 40 shares and Jerry owned 60 shares. Be

n sold his shares to Joe for $10,000 on March 31, 1998. The corp. reported a $50,000 loss at the end of 1998.
How much of the loss is allocated to Joe?
A. $20,000
B. $15,060
C. $12,500
D. $10,000
Business
1 answer:
expeople1 [14]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: $15,060

Explanation:

From the question, we are informed that Ben and Jerry were shareholders of Water Ice Inc., an S corp. On Jan. 1, 1998, Ben owned 40 shares and Jerry owned 60 shares.

We are further told that Ben sold his shares to Joe for $10,000 on March 31, 1998 and that the corp. reported a $50,000 loss at the end of 1998. The loss that will be allocated to Joe will be:

= $50,000 × 40% × 9/12

= $50,000 × 0.4 × 0.75

= $15,000

The closest figure we have close to that is $15,060 which is option B

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"Integrated marketing communications represents the _________________ P in the four Ps of a firm's marketing mix. "
lozanna [386]

Answer:

Promotion

Explanation:

The four Ps of of the marketing mix are Pricing, Promotion, Place, and Product.

Integrated marketing communications is part of promotion.

Promotion is defined as the act of increasing awareness about a product or service to the target market with a view of increasing sales. It involves communication beneficial information of a product to the buyer.

Integrated marketing communications which is the process of employing all promotional tools to work in harmony.

Therefore it represents promotion in the marketing mix

6 0
3 years ago
A portfolio is comprised of two stocks. Stock A comprises 65% of the portfolio and has a beta of 1.21. Stock B has a beta of .95
Lapatulllka [165]

If a  portfolio is comprised of two stocks. Stock A comprises 65% of the portfolio and has a beta of 1.21. The portfolio beta is 1.119.

<h3>Portfolio beta</h3>

Using this formula

Portfolio beta=(Stock A portfolio×beta)+[(1-Stock A porfolio)× Stock B beta]

Let plug in the formula

βp = (.65 × 1.21) + [(1 - .65) × .95]

βp = (.7865) + [.35 × .95]

βp= .7865+ .3325

βp = 1.119

Therefore the portfolio beta is 1.119.

Learn more about  portfolio beta here:brainly.com/question/14986133

8 0
2 years ago
Aluminum maker Alcoa has a beta of about 1.85​, whereas Hormel Foods has a beta of 0.39. If the expected excess return of the ma
Nady [450]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

As we know that

According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula

Expected rate of return = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)

And, the market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return is also known as the market risk premium

As we can see that the Alcoa contains high beta as compared to Hormel Foods so the Alcoa has a higher equity cost of capital

And, the higher rate is

= (Excess return of the market) × (Alcoa beta - Hormel foods beta)

= (3%) × (1.85 - 0.39)

= 3% × 1.46

= 4.38%

8 0
3 years ago
In its first month of operation, Tamarisk, Inc. purchased 230 units of inventory for $8, then 330 units for $9, and finally 270
aivan3 [116]

Answer:

Phantom profit= $500

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Purchased: 230 units for $8

Purchased: 330 units for $9

Purchased: 270 units for $10.

At the end of the month, 310 units remained.

The method with the highest ending inventory will result in the lowest cost of goods sold.

First, we need to calculate the ending inventory under FIFO method.

FIFO (first-in, first-out):

Ending inventory= 270*10 + 40*9= $3,060

Now, we calculate the ending inventory under the LIFO method and compare it with FIFO.

LIFO (last-in, first-out)

Ending inventory= 230*8  + 80*9= $2,560

Phantom profit= 3,060 - 2,560= $500

8 0
3 years ago
The president of the company you work for has asked you to evaluate the proposed acquisition of a new chromatograph for the firm
Tems11 [23]

Answer:

Part A)

Year 0 net cash flow would comprise of basic price, modification cost and requirement for net working capital. The formula for cash flow in Year 0 would be:

Year 0 Net Cash Flow = -Basic Price - Modification Cost - NWC

______________

Using the values provided in the question, we get,

Year 0 Net Cash Flow = -190,000 - 47,500 - 9,500 = -$247,000

______________________

Part B:

Year 1, 2 and 3 would required adjustment for depreciation charges (under MACRS) against expected savings. The depreciation rates for 3 year class asset would be 33%, 45% and 15% for Year 1, Year 2 and Year 3 respectively.

Depreciation would be calculated on the equipment's basic price and modification cost.

The formula that can be used to calculate the net operating cash flow would be:

Net Operating Cash Flow = (Sales - Depreciation)*(1-Tax Rate) + Depreciation

______________

Using the values provided in the question, we get, the table in the attached file

Important Information:

Depreciation (Year 1) = (190,000 + 47,500)*33% = $78,375

Depreciation (Year 2) = (190,000 + 47,500)*45% = $106,875

Depreciation (Year 3) = (190,000 + 47,500)*15% = $35,625

______________________

Part C:

Additional non operating cash flow would consist of after-tax salvage value and return of net working capital. Relevant formulas are:

Additional Non Operating Cash Flow = After Tax Salvage Value + Return of Net Working Capital

After Tax Salvage Value = Sales Value +/- Tax on Loss/Gain from Sale of Asset

Loss/Gain from Sale of Asset = Sales Value - Book Value

Book Value = (Basic Price + Modification Cost)*(1-(33%+45%+15%))

______________

Using the above mentioned formulas, we get,

Book Value = (190000 + 47500)*(1-(33%+45%+15%)) = $16,625

Gain on Sale of Equipment = 66,500 - 16,625 = $49,875

Tax on Gain = $49,875*30% = $14,962.50

After Tax Salvage Value = 66,500 - 14,962.50 = $51,537.50

_____________________

Additional (Non Operating) Cash Flow = $51,537.50 + $9,500 = $61,037.50 or $61,038

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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