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Rus_ich [418]
2 years ago
5

A machine with a cost of $133,000 and accumulated depreciation of $86,500 is sold for $53,000 cash. The amount that should be re

ported in the operating activities section reported under the direct method is:
Business
1 answer:
adell [148]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Zero, because the selling of fixed asset is reported as cash inflow under investing activity.

Explanation:

Cash flow from investing activities includes all the investments in the long term assets and sale of investments or individual assets. The investment items may include Property, Plant and Equipment.

So this means that it will not be included in the Cash from Operating Activities because it is a Cash from Investing Activities.

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Assume that a country with an open economy has a fixed exchange-rate system and that its currency is currently overvalued in the
olasank [31]

Answer: b. The quantity of the country's currency supplied exceeds the quantity demanded.

Explanation:

A country operating a fixed-exchange rate system would be actively trading its currency to ensure that it remains at a certain rate. If the currency is overvalued, it means that the currency is actually weak and is being propped up by the company's actions in the forex market.

A reason for the weakness would be that the supply is higher than the demand of the currency which means that, as per the rules of supply and demand, the currency is trading at a lower price, i,e., it is weak.

7 0
2 years ago
In which of the following scenarios would you have the most money at the end of the year? 3% compounded yearly 2% compounded mon
larisa [96]
3% compounded yearly<span />
4 0
3 years ago
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Why is it important to not let slides distract from you
Art [367]

Answer:

because they are fun and if you get distracted you don't want to finish what you are doing

3 0
3 years ago
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Why are europeans smarter about their own countries governments than we Americans are about ours?
a_sh-v [17]
Well that's not really a question. More of an opinion.
5 0
3 years ago
If markets are efficient, what should be the correlation coefficient between stock returns for two nonoverlapping time periods?
S_A_V [24]

Answer: Zero

Explanation:

The Correlation Coefficient measures the relationship between 2 variables under study and ranges from -1 to +1 which -1 meaning that the two are perfectly negatively correlated and +1 meaning they are perfectly positively correlation. A Correlation Coefficient of 0 means that there is no relationship.

An efficient market is one where all information is available to every market participant. This means that one cannot use information from one period to make abnormal profits in another period because all information is available. The Correlation Coefficient will therefore show 0 because information from the previous period is not being used in another period meaning there is no relationship between stock returns.

7 0
3 years ago
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