Explanation:
Bring ur as over here and ill use my dic
(D) In order to prevent your account from going under zero you must remember what you spent your money on.
Nowadays you can check your bank accounts balance on your phone so you can see how much you spent.
Answer:
the answer would be d. I got it right on Plato
Answer:
$411,000
Explanation:
Cost of goods sold was $380,000
Inventory was increased by $12,000
Accounts Payable was decreased by $19,000
The relationship via direct method of cash flow can be established as:
COGS + Increase in Inventory + Decrease in A/P
$380,000 + $12,000 + $19,000 = $411,000
Answer and Explanation:
(A) E(P) = (0.6) × ($2800) + (0.4) × ($2250)
= $1680+$900
= $2,580
E(S) = (0.6) × (1.40)+(0.4) × (1.5)
= 0.84 + 0.60
= $1.44
Var(S) = (0.6)(1.40 - 1.44)² + (.4)(1.50 - 1.44)²
= .00096+.00144
= 0.0024.
Cov(P,S) = (0.6)(2800-2580)(1.4-1.44) + (0.4)(2250-2580)(1.5-1.44)
= -5.28-7.92
= -13.20
b = Cov(P,S)/Var(S)
= -13.20/.0024
= -£5,500.
there is a negative exposure. as the pound gets stronger/weaker against the dollar the dollar value of british holding goes higher.
(B) b²Var(S) = (-5500)²(.0024) = 72,600($)²
(C). i would Buy 5,500 forward to hedge exchange risk exposure. By doing this, i can eliminate the volatility of the dollar value of your British asset that is due to the volatility of the exchange rate
