Answer:
I believe it's "a decrease in income if good X is an inferior good"
Explanation:
If the price is decreased people are more likely to buy it. If people have more money they are more likely to buy more thinks including good X. An increase in popularity with good X is sure to make more people want to buy it, so the second option is the only one that really makes sense.
It may seem that franchise has many benefits since it allows for a person to open and operate a business without much knowledge of how to run a business and generally franchises are well advertised so not much marketing costs are needed, however negative impacts are much more, since you need to pay lifetime percentages for sales and operating under franchise as well as there is no room for creativity and too much dependence on a big business. Also the funds needed to open a franchise are much higher than same business but operating independently. So negative side is prevailing.
Answer:
High traffic
Explanation:
Higher traffic means more visibility, more visibility means more customers.
Answer:
d. the camry becomes an inferior good because the good is now perceived as lower in quality than a lexus
Explanation:
There are a number goods that over time, for a variety of reasons, transition from being a normal good to an inferior good or from being an inferior good to a normal good. One such example of a good is the Toyota Camry. In the 1980s, more income for a household usually resulted in more Camrys being purchased. However, today more Toyota Camrys are purchased by households that have experienced a reduction in income.
How could this happen?
<u>This could only have happened because of a change in perception in households over time. </u>
It is stated in the Scenario that ''today more Toyota Camrys are purchased by households that have experienced a reduction in income.''
<u>That means Toyota Camry has become an inferior good that is purchased more when income falls.</u>
<u>Hence, the only reason the scenario would have occurred is that the camry becomes an inferior good because the good is now perceived as lower in quality</u> than a lexus
Answer:
The answer is B.
Explanation:
In purely competitive firms, there are many buyers and sellers that no single buyer or seller can influence the price of goods. They accept the price set by the market conditions which depend on the market supply and demand. Firms in this market are price-takers.
In monopolistic firm, no one is competing against him. He is the only one in the industry. He is the only seller while buyers are many. In most cases, buyers do not have alternative than to buy the product. Because of this, the firm in monopoly sets its price. He is a price-maker.
