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Lady bird [3.3K]
3 years ago
6

Chance Company had two operating divisions, one manufacturing farm equipment and the other office supplies. Both divisions are c

onsidered separate components as defined by generally accepted accounting principles. The farm equipment component had been unprofitable, and on September 1, 2018, the company adopted a plan to sell the assets of the division. The actual sale was completed on December 15, 2018, at a price of $600,000. The book value of the division’s assets was $1,000,000, resulting in a before-tax loss of $400,000 on the sale.
The division incurred a before-tax operating loss from operations of $120,000 from the beginning of the year through December 15. The income tax rate is 30%. Chance’s after-tax income from its continuing operations is $440,000.Required:Prepare an income statement for 2016 beginning with income from continuing operations. Include appropriate EPS disclosures assuming that 100,000 shares of common stock were outstanding throughout the year. (Amounts to be deducted should be indicated with a minus sign. Round EPS answers to 2 decimal places.)
Business
1 answer:
S_A_V [24]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Net income = $76,000

Earning per share (EPS):

Income from continuing operations per share = $4.40 per share

Loss from discontinued operations per share = -$3.64 per share

Net Income per share = $0.76 per share

Explanation:

Note: See the attached excel file for the income statement.

Also Note: Two years (2016 and 2018) were mistakenly mentioned in the question instead of just one of them. I therefore picked 2016 to prepare the income statement.

In the attached excel file, the earning per share (EPS) is calculated as follows:

Number of shares outstanding = 100,000 shares

Income from continuing operations per share  = Income from continuing operations / Number of shares outstanding = $440,000 / 100,000 = $4.40 per share

Loss from discontinued operations per share = Loss from discontinued operations / Number of shares outstanding = -$364,000 / 100,000 = -$3.64 per share

Net Income per share = Net Income / Number of shares outstanding = $76,000 / 100,000 = $0.76 per share

Download xlsx
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If real income rises 4%, prices rise 1%, and nominal money demand rises 4%, what is the income elasticity of real money demand?
goblinko [34]

The income elasticity of real money demand d. 3/4

Increase in real money demand = Increase in nominal money demand - Increase in inflation = 4% - 1% = 3%

Income elasticity of real money demand = % increase in real money demand / % increase in real income

= 3% / 4%

= 3/4

Income elasticity of demand is a monetary measure of how responsive the amount of demand for a very good or provider is to trade-in earnings. The formulation for calculating earnings elasticity of demand is the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by using the percent change in earnings.

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5 0
2 years ago
Identify the trade-restraining practice that this example demonstrates. Two retailers decide that they will both sell no more th
Sav [38]

Answer:

The right approach is "Controlling output".

Explanation:

  • Correlation between these two retailers starts deciding that they would rather whether to sell no upwards of hundred TV premium increases for every month throughout order to ensure the highest TV appearance.
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3 years ago
Kendra Enterprises has never paid a dividend. Free cash flow is projected to be $80,000 and $100,000 for the next 2 years, respe
Lena [83]

Answer:

$856,376.30

Explanation:

What is the terminal, or horizon, value of operations?

2 years, FCF 1 = 80,000, FCFC 2 = 100,000, Growth rate= 5%, WACC = 16%

==> 100,000*(1+0.05)/(0.16-0.05)

==> 100,000*(1.05/0.11)

==> 100,000*(9.545454(

==> 954,545

Calculating the value of Kendra's operations.

Years  Cash-flows   PVF at 16%    Present value

1           800,000       0.86206         68964.80

2          105,000        0.74316           78031.80

2          954,545        0.74316           <u>709379.70</u>

            Total value                           <u>856,376.30</u>

8 0
3 years ago
What is 2divided by 100
aleksley [76]

Answer:

0.02

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The risk-free rate of return is 8%, the expected rate of return on the market portfolio is 15%, and the stock of Xyrong Corporat
koban [17]

Answer:

Risk-free rate (Rf) = 8%

Return on market portfolio (Rm) = 15%

Beta (β) = 1.2

Ke = Rf + β(Rm - Rf)

Ke = 8 + 1.2(15 - 8)

Ke = 8 + 1.2(7)

Ke = 8 + 8.4

Ke = 16.40%

Earnings per share (EPS) = $10

Current dividend paid (Do) = 40% x $10 = $4

Retention rate (b) = &6/$10 x 100 = 60% = 0.6

ROE (r) = 20% = 0.2

Growth rate (g) = b x r

                         = 0.6 x 0.2

                         = 0.12 = 12%

Current market price (Po)

= Do<u>(1 + g) </u>  

        Ke - g

= $4<u>(1 + 0.12)</u>

     0.1640 - 0.12

= $4<u>(1.12)</u>

      0.044

= $101.82

             

Explanation:

First and foremost, we need to calculate the cost of equity based on capital asset pricing model. Then, we will determine the growth rate, which is a function of retention rate (b) and return on equity(r).

Finally, we will calculate the current market price, which is dividend paid, subject to growth, divided by the excess of cost of equity over growth rate.

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3 years ago
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