Answer:
Option A is correct
Explanation:
Communication serves the means of inspiring the worker to be proactive in the expansion of the company and making them see reason why, communication and education have four purposes which is informing, means of influencing actions and way of expressing feelings to people.
Answer:
$49.01 per Share
Explanation:
We can find the value of the unit share of company that will be dissolved at the end of year 2 by using the following formula:
<u>Current Price per Share = Value of Firm Today (Step1) / Number of Shares</u>
= $1,862,345 / 38,000 shares
= $49.01 per Share
<u></u>
<u>Step 1: Find the value of the firm in today's price by using the discounting technique</u>
Value of Firm Today = Cash Flow for Year 1 / (1+r)^1 + Cash Flow for Year 2 / (1+r)^2
= $860,000 / (1 + 11%)^1 + $1,340,000 / (1 + 11%)^2
= $774,774 + $1,087,571
= $1,862,345
Answer:
a. $26,200 Unfavorable
b. $16,800 Unfavorable
c. $ 5,000 Unfavorable
d. $48,000 Unfavorable
Explanation:
a Variable-overhead spending variance
<em>Variable-overhead spending variance = Budgeted Variable overheads at actual hours worked - Actual variable overheads</em>
= (33,400 × $ 12.00) - $ 427,000
= $400,800 - $ 427,000
= $26,200 Unfavorable
b. Variable-overhead efficiency variance
<em>Variable-overhead efficiency variance = (Actual Output × Standard hour × Standard rate) - (Actual hours × Standard rate per hour)</em>
= (8,000 × 4 × $ 12.00) - (33,400 × $ 12.00)
= $384,000 - $400,800
= $16,800 Unfavorable
c. Fixed-overhead budget variance
<em>Fixed-overhead budget variance = Actual Fixed Overheads - Budgeted Fixed Overheads</em>
= $ 149,000 - $ 144,000
= $ 5,000 Unfavorable
d. Fixed-overhead volume variance
<em>Fixed-overhead volume variance = Fixed overheads at Budgeted Production - Budgeted Fixed Overheads</em>
= ($ 144,000 / 12,000 × 8,000) - $ 144,000
= $96,000 - $144,000
= $48,000 Unfavorable
Answer:
Date Account titles and Explanation Debit ($) Credit ($)
Notes receivable 200,000
Discount on notes receivable 34,711
Sales revenue 165,289
(To record notes receivable)
Workings:
The PV of $200,000 due in 2 years at 10% = $200,000*0.82645 = $165,290
Answer:
$6,000
Explanation:
According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-
We can calculate the Interest Expenses of Total Bond by using following formula:-
Interest Expenses = Face Value × Rate of Bonds
= $56,000 × 10%
= $5,600
Amortization Expenses = (Bond Issue Price - Bond Face Value) ÷ Bond Term
= ($60,000 - $56,000) ÷ 10
= $400
Interest Expenses of Total Bond = Interest Expenses + Amortization Expenses
= $5,600 + $400
= $6,000
