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Phoenix [80]
3 years ago
9

John Williams, manager of Phoenix Entertainment, wants to compute the variable overhead efficiency variance for the year. He has

the following details:
Variable overhead flexible budget variance (unfavorable)
$23,625
Budgeted input quantity allowed for actual output
$9,000
Actual input quantity used of cost-allocation base used
10,125 units
Budgeted variable overhead cost per unit of cost-allocation base
$30
Actual variable overhead cost per unit of cost-allocation base
$29

What will be the variable overhead spending variance for the year?
10125 favorable

Which of the following statements best describe variable overhead efficiency variance?
(Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base used - Budgeted quantity of the cost-allocation base that should have been used to produce the actual output) × Budgeted variable overhead cost per unit of the cost-allocation base
Business
1 answer:
jenyasd209 [6]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

$10,125 Favorable

Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base used - Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base that should have been used to produce the actual output) × Budgeted variable overhead cost per unit of the cost-allocation base

Explanation:

Variable overhead spending variance = Actual Spending - budgeted Spending based on actual quantity

Variable overhead spending variance = (Actual Input x Actual rate) - ( Actual input x Budgeted rate)

Variable overhead spending variance = (10,125 x $29) - ( 10,125 x $30)

Variable overhead spending variance = $293,625 - $303,750

Variable overhead spending variance = $10,125 Favorable

Variable overhead spending variance is

Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base used - Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base that should have been used to produce the actual output) × Budgeted variable overhead cost per unit of the cost-allocation base

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The question is incomplete. Please read below to find the missing content.

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a. Dividends

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c. Interest payments.

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7 0
2 years ago
A factory costs $460,000. You forecast that it will produce cash inflows of $150,000 in year 1, $210,000 in year 2, and $360,000
max2010maxim [7]

Answer:

Explanation:

a.Present value of inflows=cash inflow*Present value of discounting factor(rate%,time period)

=150,000/1.12+210,000/1.12^2+360,000/1.12^3

=557580.18

NPV=Present value of inflows-Present value of outflows                  

=557580.18-460,000

=$97580.18(Approx)=Value of factory

b.Hence since net present value is positive;factory is a good investment

(Yes)

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3 years ago
Presented below are long-term liability items for Pharoah Company at December 31, 2020. Bonds payable, due 2022 $625,000 Lease l
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Answer:

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Duff Inc. paid a 2.34 dollar dividend today. If the dividend is expected to grow at a constant 1 percent rate and the required r
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Answer:

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Explanation:

The computation of the price for 4 years from now is shown below:

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where,

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So, the price is

= $2.46 ÷ (11% - 1%)

= $24.60

8 0
3 years ago
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