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Oxana [17]
3 years ago
14

Ford motor company sells the fusion ses for $24,400. the fusion hybrid sells for $29,975. what is the percentage increase in pri

ce for the hybrid over the fusion ses? (round to tenth.)
Business
2 answers:
NARA [144]3 years ago
5 0
29975 - 24400 / 24400 x100 
= 5575 / 24400 x 100 
= 22.8483606557 %
Firdavs [7]3 years ago
4 0
(Higher price - Lower price)/Lower price * 100
($29,975 - $24,400)/$24,400 * 100
5575/$24,400 * 100
5575/24,40,000
0.00228483606%

Hope this helps :)

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Answer:

A. 56.32 days

B. 40.38 days

Explanation:

The Operating cycle is the Inventory period + AR period

Inventory period= 365/(Cost of goods sold/Average inventory)

Average inventory= (Beginning Inventory + Ending Inventory)/2

Accounts Receivable period= 365/(Credit Sales/Average Accounts Receivable )

Average Accounts Receivable= (Beginning Accounts Receivable + Ending Inventory Accounts Receivable)/2

Calculated Inventory period= 42.58 days

Calculated Accounts Receivable period= 13.74 days

The Cash cycle is also called the Net Operating cycle which is the Inventory period + Accounts Receivable period- Accounts Payable period

Accounts Payable period= 365/(Cost of goods sold/Average Accounts Payable)

Average Accounts Payable = (Beginning Accounts Payables + Ending Inventory Accounts Payable)/2

Calculated Accounts Payable period= 15.94 days

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3 years ago
What is the hedonic theory of wage differentials? Discuss the characteristics of a normal-profit isoprofit curve. Combine isopro
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Answer:

hedonic Theory of Wages:  

Accept just two kinds of occupations in the work showcase (safe employments versus unsafe occupations). Under this, sheltered employments have likelihood of zero that specialist gets harmed. Unsafe occupations have likelihood of 1 and laborers know this. Laborers care about whether their occupations are sheltered or hazardous.  

Laborers expand utility by picking wage-chance blends that offer them the best measure of utility. Expect laborers disdain hazard, yet to various degrees, for example they have diverse ideal pay chance blends. Firms are on their isoprofit bends that give the hazard wage mixes that give zero (financial) benefit. They vary between firms. An indulgent pay work mirror the connection among wages and occupation qualities. It matches laborers with various hazard inclinations with firms that can give employments that coordinate these diverse hazard inclinations.  

Apathy bends uncover the exchange offs that a laborer favors among wages and level of hazard (chance thought to be an 'awful'). To give a similar utility, dangerous occupations must compensation higher wages than safe employments. The more prominent the laborer's aversion for hazard, the more prominent the pay off required for changing from a safe to an unsafe activity, and the more noteworthy the booking cost. As the pay firms bring to the table for hazardous occupations increments, less firms will extend to dangerous employment opportunities and bringing about a descending slanting interest bend as it turns out to be increasingly productive for firms to make occupations spare than to pay the higher compensation.  

Suppositions of Differential Wage Theory are:  

  1. The compensation differential is sure. Hazardous employments pay more than spare occupations.  
  2. The balance wage differential is that of the last laborer employed (the peripheral specialist). It's anything but a proportion of the normal abhorrence for chance among laborers in the work showcase.  
  3. Along these lines, everything except the minimal specialist are overcompensated by the market.  

On the off chance that a few specialists like to work in dangerous occupations (they are eager to pay for the option to be harmed) and if the interest for such laborers is little, the market repaying differential is negative. At point P, where supply rises to request, laborers utilized in unsafe occupations acquire not as much as laborers utilized in safe employments. The outline given beneath shows the circumstance:  

Isoprofit Curve:  

As it is exorbitant to create well-being, a firm contribution hazard level P* can make the working environment more secure for example move left on flat pivot, just on the off chance that it diminishes compensation while keeping benefits consistent, so that the iso-benefit bend is upward slanting. Higher isoprofit bend returns lower benefit.

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Suppose your company needs $14 million to build a new assembly line. your target debt-equity ratio is 0.84. the flotation cost f
Leviafan [203]

Suppose your company needs $14 million to build a new assembly line. your target debt-equity ratio is 0.84. the flotation cost for new equity is 9.5 percent, but the floatation cost for debt is only 2.5 percent. The amount required to build a new assembly line = is $ 14 million.

Equity represents the price that could be lower back to an agency's shareholders if all of the property has been liquidated and all of the business enterprise's debts were paid off. We also can consider equity as a diploma of residual possession in a company or asset after subtracting all debts related to that asset.

Equity is the possession of any asset after any liabilities associated with the asset are cleared. for example, in case you very own a vehicle well worth $25,000, but you owe $10,000 on that car, the car represents $15,000 fairness. it is the price or interest of the maximum junior magnificence of investors in assets.

In conclusion, stocks are referred to as equities because they constitute possession in organizations. They permit buyers advantage from boom but also have a chance while enterprise conditions weaken. In the subsequent time, we'll explore the variations between shares and bonds.

Debt equity ratio (debt/equity) = 0.84/1

Therefore total assets = debt + equity = 0.84 + 1 = 1.84

Flotation Cost Percentage formula = Weight of debt x Floataion Cost of debt + Weight of equity x Floataion Cost of equity

= (0.84 / 1.84) 2.5% + (1/1.84)9.5%

= 1.1413% + 5.1630%

= 6.3043%

Amount to be raised to purchase building = Cost of building / ( 1 - Total Floatation Cost Percentage)

= 14/(1-6.3043%)

= 14/0.9370

= 14.94 million

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