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Vsevolod [243]
3 years ago
11

__________ and ________ are stimulus preference assessment methods, while ________ and __________ are reinforcer assessment meth

ods.
A. Free-operant, trial-based; concurrent schedules, multiple schedules
B. Concurrent schedules, progressive ratio schedules; free-operant, trial-based
C. Asking, progressive ratio schedules; trial assessment, multiple observation
D. Multiple operants, free-choice; tandem schedule, multiple schedule
Business
1 answer:
jekas [21]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The correct answer is A. Free-operant, trial-based; concurrent schedules, multiple schedules

The correct full sentence is:

Free operant and trial-based are stimulus preference assessment methods, while concurrent schedules and multiple schedules are reinforcer assessment methods.

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Audrey is debating the superiority of a market economy with her friend Bill. Audrey supports her argument in favor of a market e
Gelneren [198K]

Adam Smith's invisible hand theory is the concept that in a market where people are free to buy and sell as they please, buyers will buy goods that sellers offer at prices that work for all parties.

4 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2017, Culver Company issued 10-year, $2,140,000 face value, 6% bonds, at par. Each $1,000 bond is convertible into
Dvinal [7]

Answer:

a) diluted earnings per share = 0

Explanation:

Diluted earnings per share (DEPS) is a recalculation of the basic EPS. The difference between DEPS and EPS is, EPS represents the current position of earnings per share. No changes in number shares and/or earnings in the future are incorporated in the basic EPS.

Whereas DEPS is a representation of  not only the current position of earnings and shares but also includes the commitments an entity has already made whose occurrence may result in an increase/decrease in the amount of earnings and/or number of shares. For example, in the question Culver Company has issued 10-year convertible bonds which right now have no impact on basic EPS but if in the future these bond holders exercise their right of conversion, this would result in an increase in number of ordinary shares hence decreasing/diluting the basic EPS. The entities use DEPS to show shareholders the impact of such commitments on the basic EPS to improve their decision making.

So in 2017 none of the bonds were converted therefore no diluted earnings per share is calculated in 2017.

If all of the bonds were converted in 2017 the DEPS would have been calculated as follows:

The formula for calculating DEPS is as follows;

DEPS = (Net income + interest savings) ÷ number of ordinary shares + increase in ordinary shares as a result of conversion.

Tax savings as a result of conversion=$128400 ($2140000×6%). Because if bond holders convert into ordinary shares then Culver company will not have to pay them interest and hence the amount of interest is saved.

Increase in ordinary shares upon conversion= 29960 ($2140000÷$1000=2140 bonds. Each bond is convertible into 14 shares therefore, 2140×14=29960).

Now Lets calculate DEPS as follows;

DEPS = ($296000+$128400) ÷ 91000+29960

DEPS =$424400÷120960

DEPS = $3.5

5 0
3 years ago
Patrick has chosen to double major in finance and microbiology and studies 14 hours a day as a result. To make it through his st
Varvara68 [4.7K]

Answer:

D) The extra energy benefits Patrick gets from another can are no longer worth the cost. MB/MC (S)

Explanation:

The optimal quantity for Patrick to consume is 5 cans of GreenCow.

This is the quantity where MARGINAL BENEFIT EQUALS MARGINAL COST. For all quantities up to the 5th, the marginal benefit is higher than the marginal cost. This means that Patrick's net benefit is increasing, and consuming all units up to this point make him better off.

If Patrick were to consume any more than 5 cans of GreenCow, the cost of each additional can would be higher than the additional benefit (because the marginal cost curve is higher than the marginal benefit curve). Consuming any cans beyond the 5th, therefore, makes him worse off.

4 0
3 years ago
Holiday Laboratories Laboratories purchased a high speed industrial centrifuge at a cost of $420,000. Shipping costs totaled $15
blsea [12.9K]

Answer:

$455,000

Explanation:

Given that,

high speed industrial centrifuge at a cost = $420,000

Shipping costs = $15,000

Foundation work =  $8,000

additional water line = $3,000

Labor and testing costs = $6,000

Materials used up in testing = $3,000

Total Costs to be capitalized:

= High-speed industrial centrifuge + Shipping costs + Foundation Work + Additional Water Line + Labor and testing costs + Materials used in testing

=  $420,000 + $15,000 + $8,000 + $3,000 + $6,000 + $3,000

= $455,000

4 0
3 years ago
A process control system costs $200,000, has a three year service life, and a salvage value of $20,000. Find the depreciation an
Advocard [28]

Answer:

A.

Depreciation expense each of the three years would be $60,000

Book value at the end of year 1 = $140,000

Book value at the end of year 2 =$80,000

Book value at the end of year 3 =  $20,000

B.

Depreciation expense in year 1 =$90,000

Depreciation expense in year 2 =$60,000

Depreciation expense in year 3 =$30,000

Book value at the end of year 1 =$110,000

Book value at the end of year 2 = $50,000

Book value at the end of year 3 =  $20,000

C.

Depreciation expense in year 1 = $133,333.33

Book value at the end of year 1 = $66,666.67

Depreciation expense in year 2 =  $44,444.45

Book value at the end of year 2 = $22,222.22

Depreciation expense in year 3 = $14,814.16

Book value at the end of year 3 = $7,407.40

Explanation:

Straight line depreciation expense = (Cost of asset - Salvage value) / useful life

($200,000 - $20,000) / 3 = $60,000

Depreciation expense each of the three years would be $60,000

Book value at the end of year 1 = $200,000 - $60,000 = $140,000

Book value at the end of year 2 =  $140,000 - $60,000 = $80,000

Book value at the end of year 3 = $80,000 - $60,000 = $20,000

Sum-of-the-year digits = (remaining useful life / sum of the years ) x  (Cost of asset - Salvage value)

Sum of the years = 1 + 2 + 3 = 6 years

Depreciation expense in year 1 = (3/6) x ($200,000 - $20,000) = $90,000

Depreciation expense in year 2 = (2/6) x ($200,000 - $20,000) = $60,000

Depreciation expense in year 3 = (1/6) x ($200,000 - $20,000) = $30,000

Book value at the end of year 1 = $200,000 - $90,000 = $110,000

Book value at the end of year 2 = $110,000 - $60,000 = $50,000

Book value at the end of year 3 = $50,000 - $30,000 = $20,000

Depreciation expense using the double declining method = Depreciation factor x cost of the asset

Depreciation factor = 2 x (1/useful life) = 2/3

Depreciation expense in year 1 = (2/3) x $200,000 = $133,333.33

Book value at the end of year 1 = $200,000 - $133,333.33 = $66,666.67

Depreciation expense in year 2 = (2/3) x $66,666.67 = $44,444.45

Book value at the end of year 2 = $66,666.67 - $44,444.45= $22,222.22

Depreciation expense in year 3 = (2/3) x$22,222.22 = $14,814.16

Book value at the end of year 3 =$22,222.22 - $14,814.16 = $7,407.40

4 0
3 years ago
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