Answer:
The Future value of annuity due of $800 per year at 12% for 5 years is $5,692.15
Explanation:
Annuity payment = P = $800 per year
Number of years = n = 5 years
Interest rate = r = 12% = 0.12
Use following formula to calulate the Future value of Annuity due.
Future value of annuity = ( 1+r) x P [((1+r)^n - 1) / r]
Future value of annuity = ( 1+0.12) x 800 [((1+0.12)^5 - 1) / 0.12]
Future value of annuity = $5,692.15
So,The Future value of annuity due of $800 per year at 12% for 5 years is $5,692.15
The answer that best completes the statement above is COMPILATIONS. The ones that are considered to be the types of engagements and related forms of conclusions that are defined by the attestation standards are reviews, examinations, and agreed-upon procedures. These types of engagements are established under the SSAE or the Statement on Standards for Attestation Engagements made by the <span>Auditing Standards Board. </span>
<u>The only relevant difference between the </u><u>curves </u><u>for a </u><u>monopoly</u><u> and the equivalent ones for a firm in a competitive market is that </u><u>marginal</u><u> and </u><u>average revenue slope</u><u> downward for the </u><u>monopolist.</u>
What type of curve does a monopoly have?
- A monopoly encounters a downward-sloping market demand curve in Panel (b).
- It chooses its profit-maximizing output in its capacity as a profit maximizer.
- However, after determining that quantity, it uses the demand curve to determine the price at which it can sell that output.
What is a difference between a monopoly and perfect competition ?
While in monopolistic competition, businesses produce slightly different goods, in perfect competition, businesses produce identical goods.
How does a demand curve for a monopoly differ from a demand curve for a perfectly competitive firm?
Because the monopolist is the sole company operating in the market, its demand curve is identical to the market demand curve, which is downward-sloping as opposed to the demand curve for a perfectly competitive firm.
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Answer:
Andover's variable-overhead efficiency variance is $-42,000 Unfavourable
Explanation:
According to the given data we have the following:
Standard overhead rate=$ 5.60 per hour
Actual Hours=110,000 hours
Standard hours=47,000 units x 2.5 hours per unit
=117,500 hours
Therefore, in order to calculate the Andover's variable-overhead efficiency variance we would have to use the following formula:
Variable Overhead efficiency variance=Standard overhead rate x (Actual hours - standard hours)
=$ 5.60 x (110,000 - 117,500)
=$-42,000 Unfavourable
Exxon Mobil Corporation<span> is an American </span>multinational oil and gas<span> corporation headquartered in </span>Irving, Texas<span>, which is a part of the </span>Dallas–Fort Worth metroplex<span>. It is the largest direct descendant of </span>John D. Rockefeller<span>'s </span>Standard Oil Company,[2]<span> and was formed on November 30, 1999 by the merger of </span>Exxon<span> (formerly Standard Oil Company of New Jersey) and </span>Mobil<span> (formerly the Standard Oil Company of New York)</span>