What is the smallest fractional portion of an inch that you can measure with the ruler shown in Exam Figure A1?

Mathematics

1 answer:

oksano4ka [1.4K]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

The minimun portion of inches that can be measured with the ruler is 1/16''.

Step-by-step explanation:

The precision , what is the minimun measurement that can be aprecciated by the ruler can be determined counting the number of disivion within 2 units. To this ruler we can count 16 division bwtween one unit and asecutive one.

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Expand the polynomial:<br> (5a+1/5 b)^2

WINSTONCH [101]

Expand the following:
(5 a + b/5)^2

(5 a + b/5) (5 a + b/5) = (5 a) (5 a) + (5 a) (b/5) + (b/5) (5 a) + (b/5) (b/5):
5×5 a a + (5 a b)/5 + (5 b a)/5 + (b b)/(5×5)

(5 a b)/5 = 5/5×a b = a b:
5×5 a a + a b + (5 b a)/5 + (b b)/(5×5)

(b×5 a)/5 = 5/5×b a = b a:
5×5 a a + a b + b a + (b b)/(5×5)

Combine powers. (b b)/(5×5) = (b^(1 + 1))/(5×5):
5×5 a a + a b + b a + (b^(1 + 1))/(5×5)

1 + 1 = 2:
5×5 a a + a b + b a + (b^2/5)/5

5 a×5 a = 5×5 a^2:
5×5 a^2 + a b + b a + (b^2/5)/5

5×5 = 25:
Answer: 25 a^2 + a b + b a + (b^2/5)/5

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A motorist traveled 250 miles on 11 gallons of gas. With the same vehicle, about how far could he go on 16 gallons of gas? A) 17

Andrei [34K]

ANSWER

$363.6 \: miles$
EXPLANATION

We were told that the motorist travelled 250 miles on 11 gallons of gas. This implies that,

$250 \: miles \equiv11 \: gallons$

Now we want to find how far he could go on 16 gallons.

$x \: miles \equiv16 \: gallons$

All other things being equal, the motorist should cover more than 250 miles with 16 gallons of gas.

Recall that: If more, less divides.

This implies that,

$x = \frac{250 \times 16}{11}$

$x = \frac{4000}{11} = 363.6 \: miles$

Therefore the correct answer is C.

3 0

3 years ago

If students’ scores were normally distributed and the mean was 200 with a standard deviation of 40, then what is the probability

Sonja [21]

Answer:

84%

Step-by-step explanation:

The empirical rule tells you that 68% of the standard normal distribution is within 1 standard deviation of the mean. The distribution is symmetrical, so the amount in the lower tail is (1 -68%)/2 = 16%.

Since the number you're interested in, 240, is one standard deviation above the mean (200 +40), the percentage of interest is the sum of the area of the central part of the distribution along with the lower tail:

68% + 16% = 84%.