Which of the following is NOT one of the responsibilities of the Federal Reserve?

An asset falling under the MACRS five-year class was purchased three years ago for $200,000 (its original depreciation basis). C

Nitella [24]

Answer:

(a) The cash flows is $59,040.

(b) The cash flows is $71,040.

Explanation:

From the Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System (MACRS) Tables, the depreciation rates for the first 3 years for an asset falling under the MACRS five-year class are 20%, 32% and 19.2%. Therefore, we have:

Accumulated depreciation rate = 20% + 32% + 19.2% = 71.20%

Accumulated depreciation = Cost of the asset * Accumulated depreciation rate = $200,000 * 71.20% = $142,400

Net book value of the asset = Cost of the asset - Accumulated depreciation = $200,000 - $142,400 = $57,600

We can now proceed as follows:

(a) Calculate the cash flows if the asset is sold now at $60,000

Capital gains = Sales proceeds - Net book value = $60,000 - $57,600 = $2,400

Capital gains tax = Capital gains * Tax rate = $2,400 * 40% = $960

Net sales proceeds = Sales proceeds - Capital gains tax = $60,000 - $960 = $59,040

Therefore, the cash flows is $59,040 net sales proceeds.

(b) Calculate the cash flows if the asset is sold now at $80,000

Capital gains = Sales proceeds - Net book value = $80,000 - $57,600 = $22,400

Capital gains tax = Capital gains * Tax rate = $22,400 * 40% = $8,960

Net sales proceeds = Sales proceeds - Capital gains tax = $80,000 - $8,960 = $71,040

Therefore, the cash flows is $71,040 net sales proceeds.

3 0

3 years ago

According to the FTC's historical guidelines for mergers, would the FTC approve a merger between two firms that would result in

Alborosie

Answer:

B. Maybe. The FTC would scrutinize the merger and make a case-by-case decision.

Explanation:

If we considered the historical guidelines of FTC for the merger purpose so may be FTC could permit the merger between the two firms that could result in HHI of 1,025 after the merger as the merger represent the moderal level of the concentration in the market area so here FTC should analyzes the merger with cash to cash basis

Therefore the option b is correct

8 0

3 years ago

Jonathon works for a U.S. company that doesn't produce goods domestically, but instead buys them from other countries and resell

TiliK225 [7]

Answer:

A:countertrade.

brainlist answer

8 0

3 years ago

The per-unit standards for direct labor are 2 direct labor hours at $15 per hour. If in producing 1800 units, the actual direct

Marat540 [252]

Answer:

The correct answer is D.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The per-unit standards for direct labor are 2 direct labor hours at $15 per hour. If in producing 1800 units, the actual direct labor cost was $48000 for 3000 direct labor hours worked.

We need to calculate the total direct labor variance, using two formulas:

Direct labor efficiency variance= (SQ - AQ)*standard rate

Direct labor efficiency variance= (1,800*2 - 3,000)*15= $9,000 favorable

Direct labor rate variance= (Standard Rate - Actual Rate)*Actual Quantity

Direct labor rate variance= (15 - 48,000/3,000)*3,000= $3,000 unfavorable

Total direct labor variance= 9,000 - 3,000= $6,000 favorable

6 0

4 years ago

Can someone please help me? Why are subordinate bonds and preferred stock more risky than long-term senior bonds?

MA_775_DIABLO [31]

Answer:

Subordinated bonds, also known as subordinated debts, is an unsecured loan or bond that ranks below other, more senior loans or securities with the respect to claims on assets or earnings. Generally, subordinated bonds are debts that can be added to preferred stocks. Preferred stocks can be viewed as long- term investments, but are generally more risky because they are more sensitive to interest- rate risk if the rates rise. If they rise, then the price of the preferred stocks may fall and can fall lower than the price of short- term bonds. The difference between subordinated bonds and senior bonds is the priority in which the debt claims are paid. If one has to file bankruptcy or face liquidation, senior debts is paid back before the subordinate debt. Once the senior debt is completely paid back, then the subordinate debt starts being repaid.

Explanation:

7 0

3 years ago

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