<span>The answer is that the fraction of 1/2 pint is 1 cup. To solve this you must know the equivalence between pints and cups, and use the notion of proportions. Two cups equal one pint. Then you can state this proportion: 1 pint / 2 cups = x pint / 1 cup. When you solve for x you get: x = 1/2. Which means that 1 cup is 1/2 of 1 pint. </span>
#15(A)
First Bike
$380 - $190 ($380 * 0.50) = $190
2nd Bike
$380 - $114 ( $380 * 0.30) = $266
$266 - $53.20 ($266 * 0.20) = $212.80
#15 (B)
Eliza should buy the first bike because it is cheaper. $190 < $212.80
#16
$57 + $28.50 ($57 * .50) = $85.50
Answer:
85 California spout alone 1
Answer:
(-2, 6)
Step-by-step explanation:
We can simply do this by plugging in all of the coordinates. (I did this in my head quickly, so I know what it is; I'm just going to plug in the correct answer.) The correct answer is (-2, 6), so we're just going to plug them into the simplest equation, which is probably y=-3x. So...
6=-3(-2)
6=6
This answer is correct. If you're unsure about the answer, you can always check in the other equation. So...
3(-2)+2(6)=6
-6+12=6
6=6
Hope this helps and have an amazing day ^^
