The deadweight loss is $90.6.
<h3>How to calculate the loss?</h3>
The study suggested that the average recipient's valuation of the gift received was approximately 90% of the actual purchase price of the gift.
This means there's a loss of 10% in value constitute the deadweight loss.
Average amount spent on gift = $906
Percentage loss in value = 10% or 0.10
Calculate the deadweight loss -
= Average amount spent on gifts * Percentage loss in value
DWL = $906 * 0.10
The deadweight loss would be $90.6.
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A study by university of minnesota economist, joel waldfogel, estimated the difference in the actual monetary value of gifts received and how much the recipients would have been willing to pay to buy them on their own. the study suggested that the average recipient’s valuation was approximately 90% of the actual purchase price.
Calculate the deadweight loss if the average amount is $906.
Answer: Human Error
Explanation:
Human error has to be accounted for because contraceptives are not 100% reliable and it could be used properly and still result into unwanted results. Body types varies although likelihood of it working may be reasonably assured it’s not absolutely assured.
Answer:
Video Games = 35%
Explanation:
As for the provided information, we have:
Operating Income given is exclusive of Depreciation and amortization as operating income do not include so:
Therefore:
EBITDA as percentage of Revenue shall be :
For each segment the calculation shall be:
Film = 
= 30%
Theme Park = 
= 32%
Video Game = 
= 35%
Since the highest percentage is that of video games, it is the most productive.
The options provided do not relate to this question.
The best choice is C, 0.50% to 1.25%, because they are only allowed to do roughly about 1% on mutual funds by state requirements and laws in the United States and other major economic groups. This interval is best because A is insanely low on mutual funds and would make the nation impossible to sustain itself, B is a bit too low, and D is absurdly high because 2.50% is a violation. Found this helpful? Give it a Brainiest Award.
Answer:
stock price = (Div 1 / r - g1) x {1 - [(1 + g1) / (1 + r)]ⁿ} + (Div 1 / r - g2) x [(1 + g1) / (1 + r)]ⁿ⁻¹
Explanation:
since the company will first grow at g1 for n years, and then at g2 forever, we need to first determine the present value of the dividends growing at g1 for n years:
present value of the dividends during n = (Div 1 / r - g1) x {1 - [(1 + g1) / (1 + r)]ⁿ}
e.g. div = $2, n = 5 years, g1 = 8%, r = 12%
(2 / 12% - 8%) x {1 - [(1 + 8%) / (1 + 12%)]⁵} = 50 x 0.166263 = $8.31
now we find the formula to calculate the present value for the growing perpetuity g2 at n - 1 years:
= (Div 1 / r - g2) x [(1 + g1) / (1 + r)]ⁿ⁻¹
following the same example but changing g1 for g2, and g2 = 5%
= (2 / 12% - 5%) x [(1 + 5%) / (1 + 12%)]⁵⁻¹ = 28.5714 x 0.772476 = $22.07
we now add both parts to finish our example = $8.31 + $22.07 = $30.38
