Answer:
Level of sales in dollars in order to generate a profit of $54,000 Fixed cost + Target profit/Contribution per unit $270,000 + $54,0000/0.75
= $432,000
Number of units to be sold
= Level of sales/Selling price
= $432,000/$36
= 12,000 units
The correct answer is A
Explanation:
In this case, we need to calculate level of sales in dollars, which is fixed cost plus target profit divided by contribution margin ratio. Then, we will calculate no of units to be sold, which is the level of sales divided by selling price.
Answer
This new position as a first line manager will require him to operate his departments. This role requires him to assign tasks, manage the work flow, monitor the quality of work, solve the employees problems and keep informing the middle and executive managers on challenges and success on the ground level of the company.
Explanations
First-line managers provide firsthand information on true challenges and can offer better and workable solutions. This is because they have the immediate view of the outcomes of the policies, strategies, marketing approaches and production capabilities of the company. They have the ear of upper managers, where they will offer solutions that can improve the processes in the company and the procedures. In addition to that, first-line managers are expected by the work-group employees to protect them from policies and initiatives which are unreasonable.
Answer:
$217,000
Explanation:
Begining Purchases Ending
Raw Materials $ 36,000 $ 69,000 $ 24.000
Work in Process $ 23,000 $ 17,000 $ 6.000
Finished Goods $ 37,000 $ 55,000 -$ 18.000
Direct Lab Costs $ 94,000 $ 94,000
Manuf Overhead $ 54,000 $ 54,000
Total
Raw Materials $ 81.000
Work in Process $ 6.000
Finished Goods -$ 18.000
Direct Labor Costs $ 94.000
Manufacturing Overhead $ 54.000
Costo of Goods Manufactured $ 217.000
Answer:
The withdraw amount is "11,227.42".
Explanation:
The given values are:
In stock account,
PMT = $820
Interest rate = 
N = 300
PV = 0
In Bond account,
PMT = $420
Interest rate = 
N = 300
PV = 0
Now,
By using the FV (Future value) function, the value in Stock account will be:
= ![FV(rate,nper,pmt,[pv],[type])](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=FV%28rate%2Cnper%2Cpmt%2C%5Bpv%5D%2C%5Btype%5D%29)
= 
By using the FV (Future value) function, the value in Stock account will be:
= ![FV(rate,nper,pmt,[pv],[type])](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=FV%28rate%2Cnper%2Cpmt%2C%5Bpv%5D%2C%5Btype%5D%29)
= 
After 25 years,
The value throughout the account, will be:
= 
= 
By using the PMT function, we can find the with drawling amount. The amount will be:
= ![PMT(rate, nper, pv, [fv], [type])](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=PMT%28rate%2C%20nper%2C%20pv%2C%20%5Bfv%5D%2C%20%5Btype%5D%29)
= 
Answer:
Please check the answer below
Explanation:
a. One issue is the "locking-in" of assets. If I hold shares of Corporation X, then I can delay paying taxes as long as I don't sell. Effectively, I get to keep all of the interest/dividend payments on my tax liability. However, if I discover that X is really a poor investment and Corporation Y is better, then selling X and buying Y means that I have to pay taxes. This might discourage me from making a switch to a more profitable/efficient investment decision. This is the "locking-in" effect.
b. A short-run cut might cause many people to sell stocks that they had felt "locked-in" with. The penalty for switching is smaller, so more people will do it -- resulting in a great deal of cap gains tax revenue collected.
c. Taxing realized gains, even when the stock is not sold, rather than just accrued gains would eliminate this locking-in effect. Investors would not be penalized for switching to a better investment, and long-term capital gains revenue (as well as efficiency) would rise.