Answer:
$56,000 Favorable
Explanation:
The computation of the flexible-budget amount for variable manufacturing overhead is shown below
The Budgeted machine hours per unit os
= 24,000 ÷ 8,000
= 3
The Budgeted machine hours allowed for 8,500 units is
= 8,500 × 3
= 25,500
Now the Budgeted variable overhead rate per machine hour is
= $288,000 ÷ 24,000
= $12.00
Now
Flexible-budget amount is
= 25,500 × $12.00
= $306,000
So, the Flexible-budget variance is
= $250,000 - $306,000
= $56,000 Favorable
Bea Moran wants to establish a long derivatives position in a commodity she will need to acquire in six months. Moran observes that the six-month forward price is 45.20 and the six-month futures price is 45.10. This difference most likely suggests that for this commodity: futures prices are negatively correlated with interest rates.
This is further explained below.
<h3>What are interest rates?</h3>
Generally, the fraction of a loan that is charged as interest to the borrower is often stated as a yearly percentage of the loan outstanding.
"lower interest rates encourage people to spend money on house upgrades"
In conclusion, Bea Moran would want to construct a long derivatives position in a commodity that she will need to buy in a little over half a year's time. Moran notes that the price of the six-month forward contract is now at 45.20, while the price of the six-month futures contract is currently at 45.10. Because of this disparity, it is quite probable that the prices of futures contracts for this commodity have an inverse relationship with interest rates.
Read more about interest rates
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Answer:
304900 units should be transferred to the next processing department during the month.
Explanation:
Work in process : As a name suggest, the Work in process (WIP) is a process in which the work is in under processing or we can say it is not 100 % completed. It can be incomplete in any cycle .
It includes various cost like - direct material , direct labor, overhead, etc.
To find out how much units is to be transferred, the following equation is used which is shown below.
= Opening Work in process inventory + Purchase of inventory - closing work in progress inventory
= 24,900 units + 309,900 units - 29,900 units
= 304900 units
Thus, 304900 units should be transferred to the next processing department during the month.
Answer:
1. Year 1 expected value = $32.24
2. Required rate of return = 7.35%
Explanation:
1. For computing the stock price which is expected 1 year from now is shown below:
= Current Price × (1+rate)^number of years
= $31 × (1+0.04)^1
= $31 × 1.04
= $32.24
Hence, the expected 1 year value of stock price is $32.24
2. The required rate of return is computed by using an formula which is shown below:
= (Current Year dividend ÷ Current stock price)+ growth rate
where,
current year dividend is = D1
And, D1 = DO × (1+g)
where,
DO = previous dividend share
g = growth rate
So, $1 × (1+0.04)
= $1 × 1.04
= $1.04
Now apply these values to the above formula
So, required rate of return is equals to
= ($1.04 ÷ $31) + 0.04
= 7.35%
Hence, the required rate of return is 7.35%
Answer:
1.
Required rate = risk free rate + beta (market rate – risk free rate)
.12 = 0.0525 + 1.25(X – 0.0525)
1.25X – 0.065625 = .12 – 0.0525
1.25X = 0.0675 + 0.065625
X = .1333125/1.25
= 0.1065
Marker risk premium = market rate – risk free rate
= .1065 – 0.0525
= 0.054 (A)
2.
Beta of portfolio = (5000000/5500000)* 1.25 + (500000/5500000)* 1
= 0.90909* 1.25 + 0.090909* 1
= 1.136 + 0.090909
= 1.2273
3.
Required rate = risk free rate + beta (market rate – risk free rate)
= 0.0525 + 1.2273* 0.054
= 0.0525 + 0.06627
= .11877 or 11.88%
