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Ivan
3 years ago
9

Mario travels 180 miles in 2.5 hours. How many miles will he travel in one hour, if the rate is not changed? Explain.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Colt1911 [192]3 years ago
8 0

Your answer is 180/2.5. The rate goes 180 miles in 2.5 hours, so to find the rate, divide 180 by 2.5. You will get 72. The rate is 72 mph, so your answer is 72.

Furkat [3]3 years ago
7 0
I think it’s 40 but I’m not really sure or it’s around 80 sorry
You might be interested in
Please help me asap thank you so so so much u are the most amazing
bixtya [17]

The smallest angle would be 19 degrees. So option D is correct.

<h3>What is the sum of the octagon?</h3>

The sum of exterior angles of the regular octagon is 360 degrees.

Given;

The angles

x + 13 + 2x - 1 + 2x + 6 + 2x + 12 + 2x - 17 + 3x - 4 + 3x - 10 + 4x = 360

19x - 1 = 360

19x = 359

x = 18.89

The smallest angle would be

2x - 17 = 2(18.89) - 17 = 19

Learn more about angles;

brainly.com/question/13954458

#SPJ1

5 0
2 years ago
A fair coin is tossed repeatedly with results Y0, Y1, Y2, . . . that are 0 or 1 with probability 1/2 each. For n ≥ 1 let Xn = Yn
Gekata [30.6K]

Answer:

False. See te explanation an counter example below.

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we need to find:

P(X_{n+1} = | X_n =i, X_{n-1}=i') =P(X_{n+1}=j |X_n =i) for all i,i',j and for X_n in the Markov Chain assumed. If we proof this then we have a Markov Chain

For example if we assume that j=2, i=1, i'=0 then we have this:

P(X_{n+1} = | X_n =i, X_{n-1}=i') =\frac{1}{2}

Because we can only have j=2, i=1, i'=0 if we have this:

Y_{n+1}=1 , Y_n= 1, Y_{n-1}=0, Y_{n-2}=0, from definition given X_n = Y_n + Y_{n-1}

With i=1, i'=0 we have that Y_n =1 , Y_{n-1}=0, Y_{n-2}=0

So based on these conditions Y_{n+1} would be 1 with probability 1/2 from the definition.

If we find a counter example when the probability is not satisfied we can proof that we don't have a Markov Chain.

Let's assume that j=2, i=1, i'=2 for this case in order to satisfy the definition then Y_n =0, Y_{n-1}=1, Y_{n-2}=1

But on this case that means X_{n+1}\neq 2 and on this case the probability P(X_{n+1}=j| X_n =i, X_{n-1}=i')= 0, so we have a counter example and we have that:

P(X_{n+1} =j| X_n =i, X_{n-1}=i') \neq P(X_{n+1} =j | X_n =i) for all i,i', j so then we can conclude that we don't have a Markov chain for this case.

6 0
3 years ago
What is the minimum y-value after which the exponential function will always be greater than the linear function? y = 1 y = 3 y
Stells [14]

Answer:

y = 4.

Step-by-step explanation:

I suppose that this question relates to the image that can be seen below.

In the image, the green line represents the exponential function and the blue line represents the linear function.

The y-value after which the exponential function will always be greater than the linear function is the y-value where bot graphs intersect, such that after that point, the blue line starts increasing fast, and is always above the green line.

In this case, this point is the second intersection, and we can see that this intersection happens in the point (2, 4)

Remember that the usual notation for points is (x, y).

Then the y-value after which the exponential function will always be greater than the linear function is y = 4.

5 0
2 years ago
Jacoby followed a recipe that requires 2 cup for water four every 3 cups of flours. if he used 8 cups flours, how many cups of w
zmey [24]

Answer:

5 and 1/3 cups of water.

Step-by-step explanation:

Set up a proportion like this:

  2:3 for the original recipe

Then a second proportion for the recipe Jacoby used:  

  w:8  (use w for the unknown water amount)

Set up an equation so that the proportions equal each other. It helps if you write them in fraction form:

  \frac{2}{3} =\frac{w}{8}

Use cross multiplication to get the new equation:

  8 x 2 (or 16) = 3w

Then, divide both sides by 3 to get the amount for w, or water, by itself:

5 and 1/3 = w

I hope this helps! ☺

8 0
3 years ago
Northwest Molded molds plastic handles with a variable cost of $1.00 per handle. The fixed cost to run the molding machine is $2
ASHA 777 [7]

Answer:

To break even it  must be molded 1280 handles weekly.

The profit if 1500 handles are produced and sold is $440

Step-by-step explanation:

To break even, the amount of total cost must be the same as the amount of revenues.  

Total Cost is Fixed cost plus unitary variable cost multiplied by the produce quantity.  

Total cost= FC + vc*Q

Where

FC=Fixed cost

vc=unitary variable cos

Q=produce quantity

Revenue= Price * Q

Break even FC + vc*Q=Price * Q

Isolating Q

FC=(Price * Q)-(vc*Q)

FC=(Price-vc) * Q

Q= FC/(Price-vc)

Q= $2560/($3.00-$1.00)=1280

If we sold 1500 handles

Profit = Revenue- Total cost =(Price * Q)-(FC + vc*Q)

P=$3.00 *1500-$2560 - $1.00*1500=

P=$4500-$2560-$1500=440

8 0
3 years ago
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