well 1+1=2 and 2+2=4 and 4+4=8 and 8+8=16 then..............................................ummm.....................................uhhhhhhhh...........................wow this is hard.......................................................................I have no clue sorry thats all i know
Answer:
1/14
Step-by-step explanation:
There is only 1 common multiple of 4 and 6 between 1 and 14.
So the probability is:
Answer:
(-4qr)^4
Step-by-step explanation:
(-4qr)(-4qr)(-4qr)(-4qr)
There are 4 sets of -4qr being multiplied together
(-4qr)^4
Answer:
It is a one-to-one function. C is the correct answer
Step-by-step explanation:
Since no x values are repeated on the Y axis, it is a one-to-one function. Option C is correct
Answer:
3/2
Step-by-step explanation:
w/3=3(w-1)-1
w=9w-9-3
-8w=-12
w=3/2
