The answer is $100.
Amount she steals= $100
Amount she bought goods= $70
Amount the owner returns as change = $30
Amount owner loses=?
Amount she steals +amount of goods - amount she gives to owner + amount owner returns as change = $100 + $70 - $100 + $30 = $200 - $100 = $100
Answer:
Annual deposit= $2,803.09
Explanation:
<u>First, we need to calculate the monetary value at retirement:</u>
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual payment
FV= {22,000*[(1.08^25) - 1]} / 0.08
FV= $1,608,330.68
Now, the annual deposit required to reach $1,608,330.68:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual deposit
Isolating A:
A= (FV*i)/{[(1+i)^n]-1}
A= (1,608,330.68*0.08) / [(1.08^50) - 1]
A= $2,803.09
Answer:
TRUE
Explanation:
Kleister Company:
1. Issues bonds for $100 million - INFLOW
2. Repays a long-term notes payable of $10 million. - OUTFLOW
3. The company also repurchases its own shares for $12 million - OUTFLOW
4. Issues stock dividends with a market value of $5 million. - NOT A CASH FLOW
It is therefore true that Net cash flow from financing activities will be: $78 million [100 million - 10 million - 12 million] since the dividends are stock dividends not cash dividends
Answer:
The correct answer is use of multiple cost drivers to allocate overhead
Explanation:
Use of direct labor hours or direct labor cost to assign overhead to products is typical of traditional costing systems as overhead is believed to have positive relationship with labor-related variables.
Besides,using a business-wide or plant-wide single predetermined overhead rate is not feature of traditional systems of costing.
Since labor-related variables such as direct labor hours or direct labor cost is assumed to be a driver of overhead cost,hence an appropriate overhead absorption basis,it is perfectly understood that there is correlation between direct labor and incurrence of overhead cost in the business.
Answer:
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Logan Corporation has 30 employees, 10 in "A-line," and 20 in "B-line." Logan incurred $180,000 in fringe benefits costs last year.
First, we need to calculate the allocation rate based on number of employees:
Estimated allocation rate= total estimated fringe costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Estimated allocation rate= 180,000/30= $6,000 per employee.
Now, we can allocate fringe costs to the A-line:
Allocated fringe costs= Estimated Estimated allocation rate* Actual amount of allocation base
Allocated fringe costs= 6,000*10= $60,000
