Answer:
5/8
Step-by-step explanation:
Find P(x = 3 blues for the 2 draws)
two draws
Binomial probability.
we know p = 3/8 for blue, else q = 1 - q = 1 - (3/8)
X = # of blue marbles left in the bag.
apparently it looks like there are 8 marbles in the bag, 3 are blue, 5 are red
X = 3 , means the draw was a red 5/8 for the first draw
the 2nd draw can be a blue or a red so, probability is 1
P(X = 3) = (5/8) * 1 = 5/8
Area of rectangle = 24/54 square miles
length(L) = 5/9 miles
width (W)= ?
area = L * W
25/54 = 5/9 * W
W = (25/54) / (5/9) = (25 * 9) / (54 * 5)
W = 5/6 miles
Answer: Answer below.
Step-by-step explanation: If x is pi, and y is 1/pi, then multiplying x by y is 1; yes. So, for y, 1 is being divided by pi. The opposite of division is multiplication. If you multiply 1/pi by pi, the pi in the denominator cancels. Just how if it is 5x = 10, dividing by 5 cancels it on the left side, and gets you x = 2.
This is general for everything. If you multiply 2 by 1/2, you get 1. This is because dividing is also like multiplying by its reciprocal. 1/2's reciprocal is 2/1, and multiplying leaves you with 1. Go and use a calculator, it's correct. Actually, any problem a/b × b/a = 1.
Answer:
2x^2+10x+8
Step-by-step explanation:
(2x+2)(x+4)
=(2x+2)(x+4)
=(2x)(x)+(2x)(4)+(2)(x)+(2)(4)
=2x^2+8x+2x+8
=2x^2+10x+8
Answer:
x is less than or equal to -8
Step-by-step explanation:
