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otez555 [7]
3 years ago
11

You own 25 percent of Unique Vacations, Inc. You have decided to retire and want to sell your shares in this closely held, all-e

quity firm. The other shareholders have agreed to have the firm borrow $1.5 million to purchase your 1,000 shares of stock. What is the total value of this firm today if you ignore taxes
Business
1 answer:
Akimi4 [234]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

$6 million

Explanation:

If 25% of the firm is worth $1.5 million, then 100% of the firm will be worth $6 million (= $1.5 million x 4).

This is an all equity firm, which means it has no liabilities, and it is also a closely held corporation which makes it harder for a stockholder to sell his/her shares. Basically the fair value of the 1,000 shares is the money you can get from your fellow shareholders.

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Situation 22-4 Joe is the owner-operator of Joe's Haircuts Unlimited. Last year he earned $200,000 in total revenues and paid $1
prisoha [69]

Answer:

Economic profit= $25,000

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Last year he earned $200,000 in total revenues and paid $125,000 to his employees and suppliers.

Job offer= $50,000 per year

The economic profit takes into account the opportunity cost of other options.

Economic profit= 200,000 - 125,000 - 50,000

Economic profit= $25,000

4 0
3 years ago
A society can produce two goods: donuts and beer. The society's production possibility frontier is negatively sloped and "bowed
monitta

Answer:

c. increases

Explanation:

Opportunity cost is the cost of the next best option forgone when one alternative is chosen over other alternatives.

The production possibility frontier is graph that shows the two combinations of goods that an economy can produce given its resocurces.

As the production of donuts increases, the amount of beers that would be forgone in order to increase production of donuts rises.

I hope my answer helps you

5 0
4 years ago
Gitano Products operates a job-order costing system and applies overhead cost to jobs on the basis of direct materials used in p
Yanka [14]

Answer and Explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-  

1. Predetermined Overhead Rate for a Year

= Estimated Manufacturing Overhead ÷ Estimated Allocation Base Of Direct Material × 100

= $133,500 ÷ $89,000 × 100

= 150%

2. We have a need the value of overhead applied and overhead incurred, to calculate the value of over applied and under applied overhead.

Overhead Applied = (Purchase Of Direct Material + Opening Value of Direct Material - Closing Value of Direct Material) × Predetermined Overhead Rate

= ($139,000 + $27,000 - $13,000) × 150 ÷ 100

= $153,000 × 150 ÷ 100

= $229,500

Overhead Incurred

= Indirect Labor + Property Taxes + Depreciation of Equipment + Maintenance + Insurance + Rent&Building  

= 127,800 + 8,880 + 18,000 + 12,000 + 11,300 + 40,000

= $217,980

Over Applied Overhead = Overhead Applied - Overhead Incurred

= $229,500 - $217,980

= $11,520

Overhead applied is more than overhead incurred, so this situation is called over applied overhead.

3. Cost of Goods Manufactured for the Year

Particular  Amount  ($)

Opening stock of raw material 27,000

Add-purchases of raw material 139,000

Less-closing stock of raw material 13,000

Add-Direct labor 85,000

Add-Manufacturing overhead applied to WIP 229,500

Add-Opening Work in Progress 46,000

Less-closing Work in Progress 36,000

Goods manufacturing cost 477,500

4. Unadjusted Cost of Goods Sold

Particular  Amount ($)

Goods manufacturing cost 477,500

Add-finished goods opening stock 71,000

Less-finished goods closing stock 56,000

Cost of goods sold 492,500

3 0
3 years ago
Casey Electronics has a piece of machinery that costs $300,000 and is expected to have a useful life of 6 years or 40,000 hours.
kozerog [31]

Answer:

None of the given options.

Depreciation expense for year 1 would be $37,500.

Explanation:

Cost = $400,000

Residual value = $50,000  

Expected hours = 40,000

Working hours (year 1) = 6,000 hours  

Now,  

Depreciation per hour = \frac{Cost-Residual Value}{Expected hours}  

Depreciation per hour = \frac{300,000 - 50,000}{40,000}  

Depreciation per hour = \frac{250,000}{40,000}  

Depreciation per hour = $6.25

Depreciation expense (year 1) = Depreciation per hour × Working hours (year 1)

Depreciation expense (year 1) = $6.25 × 6,000

Depreciation expense (year 1) = $37,500

4 0
3 years ago
You decide that the best way to get hats and mittens to children is to start a business that sells hats and mittens. For every h
Marina CMI [18]

The main reason why a person would set up this business as a benefit corporation is to help school children.

<h3>What is a Business?</h3>

This refers to the buying and selling of goods or services with the main aim of making a profit.

Hence, we can see that based on the given scenario, there is the business of selling mittens and hats and also giving out a number for free to students, and the main reason why a person would set up this business as a benefit corporation is to help school children.

Read more about benefit corporations here:

brainly.com/question/13648699

#SPJ1

4 0
2 years ago
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