Answer:True
Explanation:A limited partnership is a form of partnership business between two or more patners in which the major partner which is the general patner has controllable interests in the running of the business and making the managerial decision while the other partner(s),which is the limited partner has only a limited liability equating to the amount invested by him/her.But in the case of the general partner,he/she has unlimited liability of the business debt.Also,the limited partner(s) core&only objective is just about making profit/returns of his/her own initial investment.
So in the case of Emma Pebble and Chase Stone,Emma is the general partner who actively takes part in the running of the business,thus bearing the major risks&liablities,while Chase is the limited partner whose only interest is to partake in profits from his initial investment.
Answer:
$94,080
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
The partnership’s capital balances
Caitlin= $128,000
Chris = $88,000
Molly = $108,000
Paul's equity = 20%
Amount invested by the Paul = $68,000
Now,
The total value of the capital = ∑ ( capital balances of each partner )
= $128,000 + $88,000 + $108,000 + $68,000
= $392,000
Therefore,
The balance in Paul's capital account immediately after Paul’s admission
= 20% of $392,000
= $78,400
Thus,
Balance in capital account for Caitlin, Chris, and Molly
= total value of the capital - Balance in Paul's capital
= $392,000 - $78,400
= $313,600
also,
Share of Caitlin = 
= 0.3
hence,
balance in Caitlin’s capital account immediately after Paul’s admission
= 0.3 × $313,600
= $94,080
Answer:
The amount that should be invested to total $45,000 in 8 years is $18,995.
Explanation:
According to the situation, you have to calculate the amount that you have to invest in the present to get $45,000 in eight years. You can find it using the formula:
P= F/(1+(i/n))^nt
P= present value
F= future value: $45,000
i= interest: 11%
n= number of times compounded per year: 3
t= time in years
P= $45,000/(1+(0.11/3))^(8*3)
P= $45,000/(1+0.0366)^24
P= $45,000/2.369
P= $18,995
Answer:
2. second-price, sealed-bid auction.
Explanation:
In the given situation, it is mentioned that there is 25 risk -neutral bidders that contains the affiliated values and the same is to be allocated between $0 and $500 million
So, here the type of an action that could maximize the expected revenue is the second price i.e. sealed bid auction as in this the bidder provides the maximum price that received the good in the second maximum price
Therefore, the second option is correct
Answer:
shows how much buyers are willing and able to buy at different prices
Explanation:
A demand curve is a graphical representation of the law of demand. The curve demonstrates the relationships between the demand for a product and its price. A demand curve slopes downwards. It shows how the quantity demanded varies with changes in prices.
As per the laws of demand, there is an indirect relationship between price and quantity demand. A rise in demand causes a decline in demand. On the demand curve, the Y-axis has prices, while the X-axis shows quantity. As the demand curve is downward sloping, changes in price cause movement along the demand curve. High prices will lead to low demand. The demand curve shows the level of quantity demanded at different prices.
