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Nutka1998 [239]
2 years ago
10

How do I put this in slope intercept form from the line in the graph? #4

Mathematics
1 answer:
vichka [17]2 years ago
5 0
You're given the y-intercept, which is (0,5), so to complete the slope intercept form, you now need to find the slope. slope is the change in y over the change in x, so take points (4,-1) and (2,2) for instance and apply the formula; -1-2= -3 and 4-2=2, so the change in y is -3 and the change in x is 2. to find the slope, you divide change in y by change in x, which is -3/2. from here, you can gather that the slope intercept form is y= -3/2x + 5
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A manufacturer of processing chips knows that 2\%2%2, percent of its chips are defective in some way. Suppose an inspector rando
kipiarov [429]

The data in the question seems a bit erroneous. I am writing the correct question below:

A manufacturer of processing chips knows that 2%, percent of its chips are defective in some way. Suppose an inspector randomly selects 4 chips for an inspection. Assuming the chips are independent, what is the probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective? Lets break this problem up into smaller pieces to understand the strategy behind solving it.

Answer:

The probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective is 0.0776.

Step-by-step explanation:

The question states that the probability of defective chips is 2% i.e. 0.02. Let p denote the probability of selecting a defective chip so, p = 0.02

An inspector selects 4 chips, which means n=4 and we need to compute the probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective. Let X be the number of defective chips selected. We need to compute P(X≥1) which means either 1, 2, 3 or 4 chips can be defective.

We will use the binomial distribution formula to solve this problem. The formula is:

<u>P(X=x) = ⁿCₓ pˣ qⁿ⁻ˣ</u>

where n = total no. of trials

          p = probability of success

          x = no. of successful trials

          q = probability of failure = 1-p

we have n=4, p=0.02 and q=1-0.02=0.98.

We need to compute P(X≥1) which is equal to:

P(X≥1) = P(X=1) + P(X=2) + P(X=3) + P(X=4)

A shorter method to do this is to use the total probability theorem:

P(X≥1) = 1 - P(X<1)

          = 1 - P(X=0)

          = 1 - ⁴C₀ (0.02)⁰(0.98)⁴⁻⁰

          = 1 - (0.98)⁴

          = 1 - 0.9224

P(X≥1) = 0.0776

4 0
3 years ago
Solve for the missing length and the other two angles in the triangle below
Klio2033 [76]

Answer:

AC = 3.72 units

Angles:

A = 132.6°

C = 27.4°

Step-by-step explanation:

AC² = 5² + 8² - 2(5)(8)cos(20)

AC² = 13.82459034

AC = 3.718143399

3.718143399/sin20 = 8/sinA

sinA = 0.7358944647

A = 180 - 47.38285134

A = 132.6171487

3.718143399/sin20 = 5/sinC

sinC = 0.4599340405

C = 27.38285134

5 0
3 years ago
SOMEBODY HELP MEEE!!!!
VladimirAG [237]
Solution= x=5
Alernative form= 21 x - 105= 0<span />
8 0
2 years ago
I CAN EXPLAIN A PROOF OF THE PYTHAGOREAN THEOREM.
Radda [10]

The answer should be 8 cm2

6 0
3 years ago
In Ethiopia there are 20 premier league soccer teams. in one round how many games are there?​
frosja888 [35]

Answer:

190 games

Step-by-step explanation:

²⁰C₂ = 20!/[(20 - 2)! * 2!] = 190

4 0
2 years ago
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