Answer:
$4,136.77
Explanation:
In this question, we use the present value formula which is shown in the attachment below:
Given that,
Future value = $10,000
Rate of interest = 4.7% ÷ 2 = 2.35
NPER = 19 years × 2 = 38 years
PMT = $0
The formula is shown below:
= -PV(Rate;NPER;PMT;FV;type)
After solving this, the price of the bond is $4,136.77
Answer:
Flip Flop Inc can still treat Interests as Interest expense and treat penalties as Fees, dues, and subscriptions.
Explanation:
Interest expense is a non-operating expense shown on the income statement. It represents interest payable on any borrowings – bonds, loans, convertible debt or lines of credit. It is essentially calculated as the interest rate times the outstanding principal amount of the debt
Penalties can be categorized under deductible expenses called Fees, dues, and subscriptions.
Levies and other fees paid to an accountant or bank; memberships fees to professional organizations, subscriptions to industry publications and funds paid as penalties are all deductible.
Answer: Option D
Explanation: Annuity refers to the payments made by an individual to another at equal intervals of time. And perpetuity refers to an annuity that has no end.
Hence the correct option is D. As in first two options the amount of payment will increase. Also in the last option the payments are made forever and equally so it is a perpetual annuity.
The firm will produce output in the short run only if the market price is at least equal to the <u>average cost</u>.
In both the short run and the long run, rate equals marginal revenue. The firm must increase output so long as marginal sales exceed marginal fee, and reduce output if marginal sales is much less than marginal fee. earnings are maximized while marginal sales equal marginal fee.
Short-run price is determined by means of short-run equilibrium among call for and supply. deliver curve in the brief run under perfect opposition is a lateral summation of the quick-run marginal value curves of the company.
Learn more about Short-run price here: brainly.com/question/14537411
#SPJ4
Answer:
I recommend converting to a Type 1 room.
This is because from the double price to the constraint 4 we see that this will enhance profit by $35. This reason is tangible enough to convert to Type 1 room.
Explanation:
