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Anna35 [415]
3 years ago
11

Spencer Tools would like to offer a special product to its best customers. However, the firm wants to limit its maximum potentia

l loss on this product to the firm's initial investment in the project. The fixed costs are estimated at $32,000, the depreciation expense is $9,700, and the contribution margin per unit is $9.85. What is the minimum number of units the firm should pre-sell to ensure its potential loss does not exceed the desired level?
a. 3,220 units
b. 3,249 units
c. 2,815 units
d. 4,233 units
e. 4,658 units
Business
1 answer:
pochemuha3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

b. 3,249 units

Explanation:

Step 1. Given information.

Fix costs are 32.000

Depreciation expense 9.700

Contribution margin 9.85

Step 2. Formulas needed to solve the exercise.

Break even point = Fixed cost / contribution per unit

Step 3. Calculation.

Break even point= $32.000/$9.85= 3,248.73 rounded to 3,249

Step 4. Solution.

3.249 units is the minimum number of units to ensure its potential loss does not exceed the desired level

Option B is correct i.e. 3.249 units

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On January 1, 2013, Warfield Co. purchased a $600,000 machine, with a five-year useful life and no salvage value. The machine wa
natulia [17]

Answer:

$0

Explanation:

In the case when the depreciation method is changed so it should be treated propectively. The past year depreciation amount remains the same. So the starting year of change having no difference should be produced but the beginning to the closing year of change the deferred tax liability should be recorded the difference occured in the future that lies between the book and tax depreciation

So, it should be zero

4 0
3 years ago
Because financial markets are ____, securities buyers and sellers do not have full access to information and cannot always break
yarga [219]

Because financial markets are <u>Imperfect</u>, securities buyers and sellers do not have full access to information and cannot always break down securities to the precise size they desire.

<u>Explanation:</u>

An imperfect market is a whole where individual buyers and sellers may influence prices and efficiency, where there is no full transparency of knowledge about products and costs, and where there are large barriers in the sector to enter or exit.

Imperfect markets may not follow the exact measurements of an actual or competitive possible market. If financial businesses were ideal, investors would be constantly and freely responsive to all erudition about any security for trade-in prime and corresponding businesses.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Seven years ago, Goodwynn &amp; Wolf Incorporated sold a 20-year bond issue with a 14% annual coupon rate and a 9% call premium.
iogann1982 [59]

Answer:

14.82%

Explanation:

initial investment = $1,000

annual coupon = $140 (7 coupons received)

selling price = $1,090

the easiest way to determine the realized rate of return is to use a financial calculator or excel spreadsheet, and calculate the IRR: 14.82%

the cash flows are:

  • -1000
  • 140
  • 140
  • 140
  • 140
  • 140
  • 140
  • 1230

5 0
2 years ago
Suppose that there are two industries, A and B. There are five firms in industry A with sales at $5 million, $2 million, $1 mill
Sonja [21]

Answer:

3200

Explanation:

The HHI is calculated by squaring the market share of each firm in the industry.

Market share = sales of a firm / total sales of firms in the industry

total sales of firms in the industry = 5 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 10

Market share of firm A = (5/10) x 100 = 50%

Market share of firm B = (2/10) x 100 = 20%

Market share of firm C, D, E = (1/10) x 100 = 10%

50² + 20² + 10² + 10²  + 10² = 3200

4 0
3 years ago
The board of directors declared cash dividends totaling $160,000 during the current year. The comparative balance sheet indicate
Nikitich [7]

Answer: $164,300

Explanation:

Cash payments to stockholders shows the total amount that the shareholders of a company got during the year. It includes the money owed to them at the start of the year in addition to cash paid during the year.

= Beginning dividends payable + Dividends for the year - Ending dividends

= 43,200 + 160,000 - 38,900

= $164,300

8 0
3 years ago
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