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kondaur [170]
3 years ago
7

One of Haley's best workers wants to work from 7 a.m. to 3 p.m. instead of the regular 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. shift for the next two w

eeks while her son plays in the championship series at a school across town. This arrangement will not hinder the employee's work. What should Haley do?
A. Avoid
B. Compromise
C. Collaborate
D. Compete
E. Accommodate
Business
1 answer:
Alchen [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

E. Accommodate

Explanation:

Since the employee's performance will not be affected by this arrengement, it is only for two weeks and the worker's motivation could be affected if Haley opposes to the worker´s demand, the  best thing to do is accomodate (change the shift's schedule for two weeks) to this new schedule in order to make the two demands  (worker and Haley's demand) fit.

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Rock industries allocates manufacturing overhead at a predetermined rate of 160% of direct labor cost. Any overallocated or unde
nadya68 [22]

Answer:

<u>Cost of goods manufactured for November.</u>

Manufacturing Schedule Cost

Beginning Inventory (Job 205)                $11,800

Direct materials                                       $26,000

Direct labor costs                                     $21,000

Applied Overheads ($21,000 x 160%)    $33,600

Less Ending Inventory (Job 104)            ($6,900)

Cost of Goods Manufactured                 $85,500

<u>Journal entries to record the current month activity.</u>

Debit : Work In Process $80,600

Credit : Direct materials                                       $26,000

Credit : Direct labor costs                                     $21,000

Credit : Applied Overheads ($21,000 x 160%)    $33,600

<u>Calculation of amount of over allocated or under allocated manufacturing overhead</u>

Actual Manufacturing Overheads = $32,000

Applied Manufacturing Overheads = $33,600

Therefore, Overheads Over-applied = $1,600

4 0
2 years ago
Knight Company reports the following costs and expenses in May. Factory utilities $16,120 Direct labor $69,685 Depreciation on f
GarryVolchara [31]

Answer:

a. $180,850

b. $390,269

c. $74,837

Explanation:

a. The computation of the manufacturing overhead is shown below:

= Factory utilities  + Depreciation on factory equipment + Property taxes on factory building  + Indirect factory labor  + Indirect materials + Factory repairs+ Factory manager salary

=  $16,120  + $13,703 + $2,894 + $52,814 + $83,926 + $3,044  + $8,349

= $180,850

b. The computation of the product cost is shown below:

= Direct materials used + Direct labor +  manufacturing overhead

= $139,734 + $69,685 + $180,850

= $390,269

c. The computation of the period cost is shown below:

= Sales salaries + Depreciation on delivery trucks + Repairs to office equipment +  Advertising + Office supplies used

= $49,631 + $4,044 + $2,185 + $15,670 + $3,307

= $74,837

7 0
3 years ago
J. M. Keyes put all his money in one stock, and the stock doubled in value in a matter of months. He did this three times in a r
adell [148]

Answer:

Lucky event

Explanation:

In the investments market a true measure of market efficiency is to get a track record of positive outcome from investors over time.

The lucky event problem occurs when an investor makes a profit on investment not because of how efficient a market is or by a logical procedure, but rather by chance.

In the given scenario Keyes put all his money in one stock that doubled in 3 months.

However this was not replicated among other investors who made similar vets on other stocks and lost.

This is an exams of lucky event problem in determining market efficiency.

5 0
3 years ago
When it comes to credit cards, what does prepaid mean?
stiv31 [10]
prepaid means already paid
8 0
3 years ago
Dhaliwal Digital categorizes its accounts receivable into three age groups for purposes of estimating its allowance for uncollec
inysia [295]

Answer:

1. Estimate the appropriate 12/31/2021 balance for Dhaliwal’s allowance for uncollectible accounts.

$19,905 credit balance

2. What journal entry should Dhaliwal record to adjust its allowance for uncollectible accounts?

December 31, 202x, adjustment of bad debt expense

Dr Bad debt expense 45,605

    Cr Allowance for uncollectible accounts 45,605

= $19,905 + $25,700 = $45,605

Explanation:

Accounts not yet due = $104,000; estimated uncollectible = 15%. ⇒ bad debt = $104,000 x 15% = $15,600

Accounts 1–45 days past due = $14,400; estimated uncollectible = 20%. bad debt = $14,400 x 20% = $2,880

Accounts more than 45 days past due = $5,700; estimated uncollectible = 25%. bad debt = $5,700 x 25% = $1,425

total bad debt expense = $15,600 + $2,880 + $1,425 = $19,905

7 0
3 years ago
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