Answer:
$256,284
Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
First, Calculate the predetermined overhead rate per hour which equals to
=  (Estimated manufacturing Overhead cost ÷ estimated machine hours)  
= ($235,900 ÷ 20,800 hours)
= $11.34 per hour
So, the applied overhead or manufacturing overhead allocated equals to
=  Predetermined overhead rate per hour × actual machine hours
= $11.34 per hour × 22,600 hours
= $256,284
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
Asset U
Explanation:
Reward-to-volatility ratio for Asset Q = Expected return / standard deviation
Reward-to-volatility ratio for Asset Q = 6.5% / 5.5%
Reward-to-volatility ratio for Asset Q = 1.1818
Reward-to-volatility ratio for Asset U = Expected return / standard deviation
Reward-to-volatility ratio for Asset U = 8.8% / 5.5%
Reward-to-volatility ratio for Asset U = 1.6
Reward-to-volatility ratio for Asset B = Expected return / standard deviation
Reward-to-volatility ratio for Asset B = 8.8% / 6.5%
Reward-to-volatility ratio for Asset B = 1.3538
The  investor should prefer Asset U because its has the highest reward to volatility ratio among the three options.
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
The answer is D). 1.15, hope this helps, have a great day/night, stay safe, happy thanksgiving!
 
        
             
        
        
        
Financial managers should strive to maximize the current value per share of the existing stock to  represent the interests of the current shareholders.
<h3>What is the functions of the Financial managers?</h3>
Financial managers can be described as the type of managers that are  responsible for the financial health of an organization. 
They help in the  creation of the  financial reports as well as  directing investment activities, and develop plans , hence Financial managers should strive to maximize the current value per share of the existing stock to  represent the interests of the current shareholders.
Learn more on Financial managers at:
brainly.com/question/1279044
#SPJ1
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
price increases and Ed equals -2.47
Explanation:
Elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of quantity demanded to changes in price. 
Demand is inelastic if a change in price has little or no effect on quantity demanded. The absolute value of the coefficient for inelastic demand is less than 1.
If price increases and demand is inelastic, total revenue would increase because there would-be little or no change in quantity demanded as a result of the price increase.
Demand is elastic if a small change in price has a greater effect on the quantity demanded. 
The absolute value of the coefficient for elastic demand is greater than 1.
If demand is elastic and price is increased, revenue would fall because of the decease in quantity demanded.
If demand is elastic and price is deceased, revenue would rise because of the increase in Quanitity demanded as a result of the fall in price.
Demand is unit elastic if a change in price has the same proportional effect on quantity demanded. The absolute value of the coefficient for unit elastic demand is one.
I hope my answer helps you