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zysi [14]
3 years ago
13

Tara is thinking of two numbers. The first number is four more than twice

Mathematics
1 answer:
uranmaximum [27]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: the answer is D

Step-by-step explanation:

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Given: JK tangent, KH=16, HE=12 Find: JK.
grin007 [14]

Check the picture below.

7 0
3 years ago
What is a similarity between the empirical rule and​ chebychev's theorem?
avanturin [10]
<span>The Empirical Rule is used when data distribution is bell shaped, whereas Chebyshev's theorem is used for all distribution shapes</span>
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3 years ago
Vector u has its initial point at (-7,2) and it's terminal point at (11,-5). Vector v has a direction opposite that of vector u,
PSYCHO15rus [73]

Answer:

3\vec{v}  = ( - 21,54)

Step-by-step explanation:

\vec{u}  =   (18,- 7)\Rightarrow  \vec{v}  = ( - 7,18) \Rightarrow  3\vec{v}  = ( - 21,54)

8 0
2 years ago
You are at a European beach with 60 other visitors. 36 of them speak English. If you randomly meet two people on the beach, what
Kaylis [27]

Answer:

Assuming I'm one of the 36 English speakers and the other 24 speak Spanish for illustration purposes.  The problem can be modeled as 59 marbles with 35 E and 24 S marbles as N = 59 possible outcomes = n(E) + n(S) = 35 + 24.

So I reach into the pile of marbles (on the beach) and the probability that it's p(E) = n(E)/N = 35/59 = 0.593220339 when I meet the one person. ANS

I assume I remember that first person; so I remove him from the marbles (by avoiding him on the beach) and now my probability is p(E and E) = n(E)/N * n(E)-1/(N - 1) = 35/59*34/58 = 0.347749854 ANS

Following the same logic p(E and E and E) = 35/59*34/58*33/57 = 0.201328863 ANS

This last one is different from the first three.  This one is p(E >= 1|4 attempts).  We can trace out a probability tree to identify those branches that contain at least one E event.  So:

EEEE p() = 35/59 * 34/58 * 33/57 * 32/56 =  

EEES p() = 35/59 * 34/58 * 33/57 * 24/56 =

EESE p() = 35/59 * 34/58 * 24/57 * 33/56 =

ESEE p() = 35/59 * 24/58 * 34/57 * 33/56 =

SEEE p() = 24/59 * 35/58 * 34/57 * 33/56 =

EESS p() = 35/59 * 34/58 * 24/57 * 23/56 =

ESES p() = 35/59 * 24/58 * 34/57 * 23/56 =

SEES

SESE

SSEE

ESSS  And so on, but...a big BUT...why do all this when

SESS

SSES

SSSE

SSSS

p(E>=1|4) = 1 - p(S and S and S and S) = 1 - 24/59 * 23/58 * 22/57 * 21/56 = 0.976652619   ANS.  In other words we find the probability of not meeting an Englishman and take 1 minus that value to find the probability of meeting at least one.

00

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
2 years ago
What is 21/75 simplified sorry guys really bad at this
Romashka [77]
7/25 because you can divide everything. Y 3
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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