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Ivenika [448]
3 years ago
6

To convert degrees Fahrenheit (F) into degrees Celsius (C) use the formula 2003-05-04-00-00_files/i0150000.jpg. Rewrite the equa

tion to convert degrees Celsius to degrees Fahrenheit.
A.
2003-05-04-00-00_files/i0150001.jpg
B.
2003-05-04-00-00_files/i0150002.jpg
C.
2003-05-04-00-00_files/i0150003.jpg
D.
2003-05-04-00-00_files/i0150004.jpg
Mathematics
1 answer:
mihalych1998 [28]3 years ago
6 0
To covert degrees Fahrenheit (F) to degrees Celsius (C) we use the equation C<span> = (</span>F<span> - 32) × 5/9</span> . To convert degrees Celsius (C) to degrees <span>Fahrenheit (F) we have to rewrite the equation. 
First step: Divide both sides by 5/9. The equation would look like this: 
</span>C(9/5) = (F - 32) 

Second step: Add 32 on both sides. 
32 + (9/5)C = F or F = <span>32 + (9/5)C</span>
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Well now she has $4.25 lol. She had $4 then, now she has $4.25.
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2 years ago
An athletic field is a 48 yd​-by-96 yd ​rectangle, with a semicircle at each of the short sides. A running track 20 yd wide surr
MA_775_DIABLO [31]

The distance would be equal to 2 times the longest side of the rectangle plus twice the shortest side multiplied by pi / 2 for the semicircle, that is:

longest side 96 and shortest 48

D = 2 * (96) + 2 * (1/2) * pi * 48

D = 192 + pi * 48

This shorter side, which starts at 48, will expand each time by two more in proportion to 20 of the running track between 8 than the number of divisions, that is, 2 * (20/8) = 5

In other words, there are 8 distances, like this:

D1 = 192 + 3.14 * 48 = 342.72 yd

D2 = 192 + 3.14 * (48 + 5) = 358.42 yd

D3 = 192 + 3.14 * (48 + 10) = 374.12 yd

D4 = 192 + 3.14 * (48 + 15) = 389.82 yd

D5 = 192 + 3.14 * (48 + 20) = 405.52 yd

D6 = 192 + 3.14 * (48 + 25) = 421.22 yd

D7 = 192 + 3.14 * (48 + 30) = 436.92 yd

D8 = 192 + 3.14 * (48 + 35) = 452.62 yd

6 0
3 years ago
A box measures 20 inches wide by 14 inches deep. The height of the box is two feet. What is the volume of the box? Remember two
Jobisdone [24]

Answer:

6,720 inches or 560 feet

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20 x 14 x 24 = said number above.

Remember volume is just length times width times height.

8 0
2 years ago
A blackjack player at a Las Vegas casino learned that the house will provide a free room if play is for four hours at an average
marysya [2.9K]

Answer:

a) player’s expected payoff is $ 240

b) probability the player loses $1000 or more is 0.1788

c)  probability the player wins is 0.3557

d) probability of going broke is 0.0594

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Since there are 60 hands per hour and the player plays for four hours then the sample size is:

n = 60 * 4 = 240

The player’s strategy provides a probability of .49 of winning on any one hand so the probability of success is:

p = 0.49

a)

Solution:

Expected payoff is basically the expected mean

Since the bet is $50 so $50 is gained when the player wins a hand and $50 is lost when the player loses a hand. So

Expected loss =  μ

                        = ∑ x P(x)

                        = 50 * P(win) - 50 * P(lose)

                        = 50 * P(win) + (-50) * (1 - P(win))

                         = 50 * 0.49 - 50 * (1 - 0.49)

                        = 24.5 - 50 ( 0.51 )

                        = 24.5 - 25.5

                        = -1

Since n=240 and expected loss is $1 per hand then the expected loss in four hours is:

240 * 1 = $ 240

b)

Using normal approximation of binomial distribution:

n = 240

p = 0.49

q = 1 - p = 1 - 0.49 = 0.51

np = 240 * 0.49 = 117.6

nq = 240 * 0.51 = 122.5

both np and nq are greater than 5 so the binomial distribution can be approximated by normal distribution

Compute z-score:

z = x - np / √(np(1-p))

  = 110.5 - 117.6 / √117.6(1-0.49)

  = −7.1/√117.6(0.51)

  = −7.1/√59.976

  = −7.1/7.744417

  =−0.916789

Here the player loses 1000 or more when he loses at least 130 of 240 hands so the wins is 240-130 = 110

Using normal probability table:

P(X≤110) = P(X<110.5)

             = P(Z<-0.916)

             = 0.1788

c)

Using normal approximation of binomial distribution:

n = 240

p = 0.49

q = 1 - p = 1 - 0.49 = 0.51

np = 240 * 0.49 = 117.6

nq = 240 * 0.51 = 122.5

both np and nq are greater than 5 so the binomial distribution can be approximated by normal distribution

Compute z-score:

z = x - np / √(np(1-p))

  = 120.5 - 117.6 / √117.6(1-0.49)

  = 2.9/√117.6(0.51)

  = 2.9/√59.976

  = 2.9/7.744417

  =0.374463

Here the player wins when he wins at least 120 of 240 hands

Using normal probability table:

P(X>120) = P(X>120.5)

              = P(Z>0.3744)  

             =  1 - P(Z<0.3744)

             = 1 - 0.6443

             = 0.3557

d)

Player goes broke when he loses $1500

Using normal approximation of binomial distribution:

n = 240

p = 0.49

q = 1 - p = 1 - 0.49 = 0.51

np = 240 * 0.49 = 117.6

nq = 240 * 0.51 = 122.5

both np and nq are greater than 5 so the binomial distribution can be approximated by normal distribution

Compute z-score:

z = x - np / √(np(1-p))

  = 105.5 - 117.6 / √117.6(1-0.49)

  = -12.1/√117.6(0.51)

  = -12.1/√59.976

  = -12.1/7.744417

  =−1.562416

Here the player loses 1500 or more when he loses at least 135 of 240 hands so the wins is 240-135 = 105

Using normal probability table:

P(X≤105) = P(X<105.5)

             = P(Z<-1.562)

             = 0.0594

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Answer: B

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