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oksano4ka [1.4K]
4 years ago
15

Amanda uses a rectangular canvas for a panting. The length is 6x-3 centimeters The width is 2x+6 centimeters,and is 4/5of the le

ngth .What are the dimensions of the canva
Mathematics
1 answer:
julia-pushkina [17]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

15 cm by 12 cm.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Amanda uses a rectangular canvas for a panting.

The length is 6x-3 centimeters.

The width is  2x+6 centimeters, and is 4/5 of the length .

Question asked:

.What are the dimensions of the canvas ?

Solution:

<u>As given that the width is </u>\frac{4}{5} of the length.

2x+6=\frac{4}{5} (6x-3)\\ \\ 2x+6=\frac{4}{5}\times6x-\frac{4}{5}\times3\\ \\ 2x+6=\frac{24x}{5} -\frac{12}{5} \\ \\

Adding both sides by \frac{12}{5}

2x+6+\frac{12}{5} =\frac{24x}{5} -\frac{12}{5}+\frac{12}{5}\\ \\ 2x+\frac{42}{5} =\frac{24x}{5}

Subtracting both sides by 2x

2x-2x+\frac{42}{5} =\frac{24x}{5} -2x\\ \\ \frac{42}{5} =\frac{24x-10x}{5} \\ \\ \frac{42}{5} =\frac{14x}{5} \\ \\

By cross multiplication:-

5\times14x=5\times42\\ \\ 70x=210\\ \\

By diving both sides by 70

x=3

<u>Now, substituting the value:-</u>

The length = 6x-3 cm

                  = 6\times3-3=18-3=15\ cm

The width = 2x+6 cm

                 = 2\times3+6=6+6=12\ cm

Thus, length and width of canvas are 15 cm and 12 cm.

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Step-by-step explanation:

Part a

For this case we need that she fails the first 3 throws and the last one would be successful, so then if p represent the probability of success and 1-p the probability of fail we have this:

(1-p)^3 p = (1-0.65)^3 (0.65)= 0.0279

Part b

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

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The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

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Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

For this case we want this probability:

P(X \geq 100) = 1-P(X

And we can use the following excel code:

"=1-BINOM.DIST(99,140,0.65,TRUE)"

P(X \geq 100) = 1-P(X

Part c

We need to check the conditions in order to use the normal approximation.

np=140*0.65=91 \geq 10

n(1-p)=140*(1-0.65)=49 \geq 10

So then we can use the normal approximation and we can find the mean and deviation like this:

\mu = np = 140*0.65= 91

\sigma = \sqrt{np(1-p)}= \sqrt{140*0.65(1-0.65)}=5.644

And we want this probability:

P(X \geq 100) = 1-P(X

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