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Annette [7]
4 years ago
9

International flows of funds can affect the Fed's monetary policy. For example, suppose that interest rates are trending lower t

han the Fed desires. If this downward pressure on U.S. interest rates may be offset by ____ of foreign funds, the Fed may not feel compelled to use a ____ monetary policy.
Business
1 answer:
Elden [556K]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

International flows of funds can affect the Fed's monetary policy. For example, suppose that interest rates are trending lower than the Fed desires. If this downward pressure on U.S. interest rates may be offset by <u>outflows</u> of foreign funds, the Fed may not feel compelled to use a <u>tight </u>monetary policy.

Explanation:

A Tight Monetary Policy is when the central bank tightens policy or makes money tight by raising short-term interest rates through policy changes to the discount rate, also known as the federal funds rate. Boosting interest rates increases the cost of borrowing and effectively reduces its attractiveness.

Outflows of foreign funds or the flight of assets occurs when foreign and domestic investors sell off their holdings in a particular country because of perceived weakness in the nation's economy and the belief that better opportunities exist abroad.

The reasoning is as follows, the rate is down in the USA so holders of assets look for better rates abroad as a consequence  there is less money in the US domestic economy and automatically the rate tend to rise (remember that interest rate is the price of money). If there is less supply of something the price of that something will go up (ceteris paribus). The same thing will happen to the interest rate without the intervention of the FED.

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Answer:

Answer:

1. Overhead over applied= $521,000

2. Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

3. Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

4. Difference between the two CGS= $ 136,060

Explanation:

Predetermined Overhead  Costs $1,152,000

Estimated activity level of 72,000 machine-hours

Overhead rate= $ 1152,000/ 72,000= $ 16 per hour

Manufacturing overhead cost $551,000

Actual hours = 67,000

Overhead applied to WIP = 67,000 * 16= $ 1072,000

Overhead over applied= $ 1072,000 - $551000= $521,000

Part 2:

Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

The Cost of Goods Sold is credited and Factory overhead is debited.

Part 3:

Suppose the overhead is applied in the following ratio

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $37,520          7%   (37520/536,00*100%)

Finished Goods,              $101,840         19%      (101840/536,00*100%)

Cost of Goods Sold       $396, 640        74%     (396,640/536,00*100%)

Total                        $536,000     100%

The  overhead over applied  would be allocated in the following way applying the same ratio as determined above.

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

Part 4:

Cost of Goods Sold ( overhead applied of $396, 640) $1,472,600

Less    Overhead   overapplied      $ 521,000

CGS = $ 951,000

Cost of Goods Sold (overhead applied to WIP & FG) $1,472,600

Less   Overapplied Overhead $ 385,540

CGS=  $ 1087,060

Difference between the two CGS = $ 1087,060- $ 951,000= $ 136,060

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