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3 years ago

If the car wheel rotates 5 times per second about how many miles does the car travel in one hour??

Mathematics

1 answer:

iVinArrow [24]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

18000

Step-by-step explanation:

If we want to find how many miles it travels in one hour, we need to find jow many seconds are in one hour because as the problem said, it's wheel rotates 5 times per second.

there are 3600 seconds in an hour, so we multiply 3600 by 5, and we get 18000.

The car travels 18000 miles in one hour.

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A Ferris wheel can accommodate 65 people in 30 minutes how many people could ride the Ferris wheel in 2 hours what was the rate

erik [133]

$65 \times 4 = 260$
260 can ride the ferris wheel in 2 hours.
$65 \times 2 = 130$
130 people is the rate per hour.

5 0

3 years ago

Which one is right triangle angle <br>a. 45, 55 and 35<br>b. 52, 48 and 20

Gemiola [76]

<h2>option b. 52, 48 and 20</h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>let's solve:-</u>

To test whether given this triangle is right triangle or not, we can use the Pythagorean Theorem .

soo

Pythagorean Theorem=

$\bold \green{(leg1)^{2} +(leg2)^{2} =(hypotenuse)^{2} }$

Here:-

$\bold \blue{leg \: 1 = 48} \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \\ \bold \blue{ leg2 = 20} \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \\ \bold\blue{hypotenuse = 52}$

Putting values:-

${48}^{2} + {20}^{2} = {52}^{2} \: \: \: \: \: \: \\ \\ 2304 + 400 = 2704 \\ \\ 2704 = 2704 \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \:$

4 0

3 years ago

What acronym is used for sine , cosine and tangent

sergejj [24]

Answer:

SOHCAHTOA.

Step-by-step explanation:

acronym is an abbreviation formed from the initial letters of other words and pronounced as a word

The acronym for sin cosine and tangent is

SOHCAHTOA

Sine =Opposite over Hypotenuse

Cosine= Adjacent over Hypotenuse

Tangent= Opposite over Adjacent

8 0

3 years ago

190 + 200 its IMPOSSIBLE

nirvana33 [79]

Answer: 390

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Can someone explain this to me??

SOVA2 [1]

Answer:

Yes. g⁻¹(x) = f(x).

Step-by-step explanation:

Let y = ∛x - 1.

Rearrange to solve for x:

y+1 = ∛x

(y+1)³ = x

Swap x and y:

(x+3)³ = y

g⁻¹(x) = (x+3)³ = f(x)

8 0

3 years ago