The fed pays interest on the required reserves held by commercial banks, as well as the excess reserves the banks hold at the fed.
A frequent monetary policy tool at the disposal of significant central banks is the payment of interest on bank reserve holdings. With effect from late 2008, the Federal Reserve is now permitted by Congress to pay interest on bank balances held by the Fed. Interest has been paid since then on those sums by the Federal Reserve.
The Fed has had to raise the interest rate it pays on reserves in order to get the fed funds rate to rise, according to Wheelock, given the significant amount of deposits kept at Reserve banks. Therefore, the Fed will pay out more interest.
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Answer:
C) performance of the contract is commercially impracticable.
Explanation:
Contract law contemplates certain situations where performing the contract is either difficult or impossible and therefore the party is not liable for breaching the contract.
Commercial impracticability applies to contracts where the performance of at least one party is impracticable and cannot be accomplished.
In this case, Quinn cannot perform his duty since the price of scrap steel increased beyond any reasonable price contemplated in the contract. Since Quinn is not responsible for setting the price of scrap steel, he is not liable for breaching the contract.
Answer:
Mojave Corporation and Target Costing:
If Mojave changes to the approach known as target costing, the company will first: trim its $350 cost.
Explanation:
Target Costing is a costing technique where a desired profit margin is set and deducted from a competitive market price. The selling price equals the target cost plus the profit margin. This implies that there is a target cost above which a manufacturer will not exceed given its desired profit and a competitive market price. Therefore, cost must be trimmed to achieve the desired profit level given a market price.
Mojave needs to plan ahead for the price points, product costs, and profit margins it wants to achieve. If it cannot achieve these, then it will be in its best interest not to continue production.
Answer:
Value of the firm $ 14550000.
Value of the firm's equity $ 11550000.
Explanation:
Cash flow from operations = $ 1785000 (1700000 + 5 % of 1700000).
Depreciation = $ 241500. (230000 + 5 % of 230000).
Taxable income = $ 1543500 (1785000 - 241500)
Net income (after tax) = 1543500 - 30 % of 1543500 = $ 1080450.
Cash flow from operations (after tax) = 1080450 + 241500 (Depreciation, being non cash expense). = $ 1321950.
Free cash flow available = Cash flow from operations (after tax) - Income from investment.
= 1321950 - (1700000 * 17 % * 1.05)
= 1321950 - 303450.
= $ 1018500.
Value of the firm = Free cash flow available / (Capitalization rate - Growth rate)
= 1018500 / (0.12 - 0.05)
= 1018500 / 0.07
= $ 14550000.
Value of the firm's equity = Total value of firm - Value of debt of firm
= 14550000 - 3000000
= $ 11550000.
Answer:
$21.859
Explanation:
According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-
Present Value = D0 × (1 + growth rate)^time ÷ (1 + Required Rate of Return)^time period
1st Year PV = $1 × (1 + 0.20)^1 ÷ (1+ 0.12)^1
= 1.20 ÷ 1.12
= 1.071
2nd Year PV = $1 × (1 + 0.20)^2 ÷ (1+ 0.12)^2
= $1 × (1.44) ÷ 1.254
= $1.148
3rd Year PV = $1 × ( 1 + 0.20)^2 × (1 + 0.10) ÷ (1 + 0.12)^3
= $1 × (1.44) × (1.10) ÷ 1.405
= $1.127
4th Year PV = $1 × ( 1 + 0.20)^2 × (1 + 0.10)^2 ÷ ( 1 +0.12)^4
= $1 × (1.44) × (1.21) ÷ 1.574
= $1.107
5th Year PV = $1 × (1 + 0.20)^2 × ( 1 +0.10)^3 ÷ (1 + 0.12)^5
= $1 × (1.44) × (1.331) ÷ 1.762
= $1.088
6th Year PV = $1 × (1 + 0.20)^2 × (1 + .10)^3 × (1.05) ÷ [(0.12 - 0.05) × (1+.12)^5]
= $1 × (1.44) × (1.331) × (1.05) ÷ (0.07) × (1.762)
= $2.012 ÷ 0.1233
= $16.318
Now
Share’s Current Value is
= $1.071 + $1.148 + $1.127 + $1.107 + $1.088 + $16.318
= $21.859
We simply applied the above formula