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Vikki [24]
3 years ago
10

Marshall Company purchases a machine for $840,000. The machine has an estimated residual value of $40,000. The company expects t

he machine to produce four million units. The machine is used to make 680,000 units during the current period. If the units-of-production method is used, the depreciation expense for this period is:
Business
1 answer:
natka813 [3]3 years ago
3 0

If the units-of-production method is used, the depreciation expense for this period is: <u>$136,000</u>

<u>Explanation</u>:

<em><u>Given</u></em>:

Cost of machine= $840,000

Estimated residual value= $40,000

No of units produced during current period= 680,000 units

Expected production by the machine= 4 million units

Unit of production method= cost of asset-salvage value/useful life in the form of units produced

Depreciation per unit= (cost - residual value)/estimated life in units

                                     = (840,000-40,000)/4,000,000

Depreciation per unit= 0.2 per unit

To calculate depreciation for period,

Depreciation for period= depreciation per unit*actual units produced in this period

                                         = .2*680,000

Depreciation for period= $136,000

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8 0
2 years ago
Plum Corporation began the month of May with $1,400,000 of current assets, a current ratio of 1.90:1, and an acid-test ratio of
matrenka [14]

Answer:

Plum Corporation

(1) current ratio = Current assets/current liabilities

(2) acid-test ratio = (Current asset -Inventory)/Current liabilities

(3) working capital = Current assets minus Current liabilities

(4) acid-test assets = quick assets

May 2 Purchased $75,000 of merchandise inventory on credit.

Current Assets:   $1,400,000 + $75,000 = $1,475,000

Current Liabilities: $737,000 + $75,000 = $812,000

Inventory: $147,000 +$75,000 = $222,000

(1) current ratio = $1,475,000/$812,000

= 1.82:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,475,000 - $222,000/$812,000

= 1.54:1

(3) working capital = Current Assets - Current Liabilities

= $1,475,000 - $812,000

= $663,000

May 8 Sold merchandise inventory that cost $55,000 for $150,000 cash.

Current Assets: $1,475,000 -55,000 + 150,000 = $1,570,000

Current Liabilities: $812,000

Inventory: $222,000 - 55,000 = $167,000

Quick Assets = $1,570,000 - 167,000 = $1,403,000

(1) current ratio = $1,570,000/$812,000

= 1.93

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,403,000/$812,000

= 1.73

(3) working capital = $1,570,000 - $812,000

= $758,000

May 10 Collected $26,000 cash on an account receivable.

Current Assets: $1,570,000 ($26,000 - $26,000) = $1,570,000

Current Liabilities: $812,000

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,570,000 - 167,000 = $1,403,000

(1) current ratio = $1,570,000/$812,000

= 1.93

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,403,000/$812,000

= 1.73

(3) working capital = $1,570,000 - $812,000

= $758,000

May 15 Paid $29,500 cash to settle an account payable.

Current Assets: $1,570,000 - $29,500 = $1,540,500

Current Liabilities: $812,000 - $29,500 = $782,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,540,500 - 167,000 = $1,373,500

(1) current ratio = $1,540,500/$782,500

= 1.97:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,373,500/$782,500

= 1.76:1

(3) working capital = $1,540,500 - $782,500

= $758,000

May 17 Wrote off a $5,000 bad debt against the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account.

Current Assets: $1,540,500 - $5,000 = $1,535,500

Current Liabilities: $782,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,535,500 - 167,000 = $1,368,500

(1) current ratio = $1,535,500/$782,500

= 1.96:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,535,500/$782,500

= $1.96:1

(3) working capital = $1,535,500 - $782,500

=$753,000

May 22 Declared a $1 per share cash dividend on its 69,000 shares of outstanding common stock.

Current Assets: $1,535,500

Current Liabilities: $782,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,535,500 - 167,000 = $1,368,500

(1) current ratio = $1,535,500/$782,500

= 1.96:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,535,500/$782,500

= $1.96:1

(3) working capital = $1,535,500 - $782,500

=$753,000

May 26 Paid the dividend declared on May 22.

Current Assets: $1,535,500 -$69,000 = $1,466,500

Current Liabilities: $782,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,466,500 - 167,000 = $1,299,500

(1) current ratio = $1,466,500/$782,500

= 1.87:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,299,500/$782,500

= 1.66:1

(3) working capital = $1,466,500 - $782,500

= $684,000

May 27 Borrowed $120,000 cash by giving the bank a 30-day, 10% note.

Current Assets: $1,466,500 + $120,000 = $1,586,500

Current Liabilities: $782,500 + $120,000 = $902,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,586,500 - 167,000 = $1,419,500

(1) current ratio = $1,586,500/$902,500

= 1.76

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,419,500/$902,500

= 1.57

(3) working capital = $1,586,500 - $902,500

= $684,000

May 28 Borrowed $135,000 cash by signing a long-term secured note.

Current Assets: $1,586,500 + $135,000= $1,721,500

Current Liabilities: $902,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,721,500 - 167,000 = $1,554,500

(1) current ratio = $1,721,500/$902,500

= 1.91:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,554,500/$902,500

= 1.72

(3) working capital = $1,721,500 - $902,500

= $819,000

May 29 Used the $255,000 cash proceeds from the notes to buy new machinery.

Current Assets:  $1,721,500 - $255,000 = $1,466,500

Current Liabilities: $902,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,466,500 - 167,000 = $1,299,500

(1) current ratio = $1,466,500/$902,500

= 1.62:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,299,500/$902,500

= 1.44:1

(3) working capital = $1,466,500 - $902,500

= $564,000

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

May 1, Current Assets = $1,400,000

Ratio of current assets to current liabilities = 1.90:1

Acid -test ratio = 1.70:1

Therefore, current liabilities = $1,400,000/1.9 = $737,000

Current Assets minus Inventory/$737,000 = 1.7

Therefore, current assets minus inventory = $737,000 * 1.7 = 1,253,000

Inventory = Current Assets - (Current assets -inventory)

= $1,400,000 - $1,253,000

= $147,000

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The product life cycle does not have a major impact on decision-making.
Dennis_Churaev [7]

Answer: Thats false.

3 0
2 years ago
The cash coverage ratio is used to evaluate the:Liquidity of a firmSpeed at which a firm generates cashLength of time that a fir
Studentka2010 [4]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": Ability of a firm to pay the interest on its debt.

Explanation:

The cash coverage ratio is a metric that measures a company's ability to pay its financial obligations. Generally, the higher the coverage ratio the better for the business to meet its debt obligations. It is best to compare coverage ratios of companies in the same industry or sector in the economy. Comparisons across industries are not useful as companies in different industries use debt in different ways.

5 0
3 years ago
Rob's wife, Marie, has a wage income of $250,000. They jointly sold stocks in 2019 and generated a long-term capital gain of $13
Kaylis [27]

Answer:

Explanation:

According to IR Many individuals, including owners of businesses operated through sole proprietorships, partnerships, S corporations, trusts and estates may be eligible for a qualified business income deduction, also called the section 199A deduction. Some trusts and estates may also claim the deduction directly.

The deduction allows them to deduct up to 20 percent of their qualified business income (QBI), plus 20 percent of qualified real estate investment trust (REIT) dividends and qualified publicly traded partnership (PTP) income. Income earned by a C corporation or by providing services as an employee isn't eligible for the deduction.

1. QBI component. This component of the deduction equals 20 percent of QBI from a domestic business operated as a sole proprietorship or through a partnership, S corporation, trust or estate. Depending on the taxpayer's taxable income, the QBI Component is subject to limitations including:

 

a. The type of trade or business,

b. The amount of W-2 wages paid by the qualified trade or business, and

c. The unadjusted basis immediately after acquisition (UBIA) of qualified property held by the trade or business.

These limitations do not apply to taxpayers with taxable income at or below a certain threshold. For 2018, the threshold amount is $315,000 for a married couple filing a joint return, and $157,500 for all other taxpayers.

STEPS ARE:

1. Original QBID = 154K*20% = 30,800

2. Wage/Cap. Investment limitation: a) wage limitation = 58K*50%= 29,000

b) wage/capital limit. = wage(58K*25%) +capital(300K*2.5%) =14,500+7,500=22K

We take the larger of them => 29K

3) Since original QBID is greater than wage limitation, we must use reduction ratio. In this case:

408K (taxable income) - 315K(threshold)/100,000 = 0.93

4) Now we subtract the wage limitation from original QBID (30,800 - 29,000) * 0.93= 1,674.

5) Finally, subtract that from original QBID 30,800-1,674=29,126.

29,126 their final QBID

4 0
3 years ago
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