Answer:
198 is the variance for the number of defective parts made each week.
Step-by-step explanation:
We are given the following in the question:
Number of parts produced each week = 20,000
Percentage of defective parts = 1%
We have to calculate the variance for the number of defective parts made each week.
We treat defective part as a success.
P(Defective part) = 1% = 0.01
Then the number defective parts follows a binomial distribution
.
Formula for variance =
Thus, 198 is the variance for the number of defective parts made each week.
N% x 1.60 = 6 (I turned it from English to math)
Can't move n% back two places to make it a decimal so I will move the number I am multiplying by n% back two places instead.
Here is a sample to show you why it works. .34 x 57 = 34 x .57
So
.016n = 6 (.016 is 1.60 decimal moved back two places)
Now divide both sides by .016
<u>.016</u>n = <u>6
</u><u />.016 .016 n = 375%
Why is the percent over 100% you might ask?
What % of 1.60 is 1.60 (Answer - all of it or 100%)
So What % of 1.60 is 6 - the number 6 being much bigger than 1.60, it is not surprising that the percent is more than 100.
What % of 1.60 is 1.60 - 100%
What % of 1.60 is 3.20 - 200% (notice that 3.20 is twice 1.60)
What % of 1.6 is 4.80 - 300% (notice that 4.80 is three times 1.60)
What % of 1.6 is 6.40 - 400% (notice that 6.40 is four times 1.60)
6 (the number in the problem) is just a bit less than 6.40 so 375% makes a lot a sense.
Hope you found this helpful.
Answer:
I am busy but all the questions from 1 to 6 just add the measure of 2 angles which are given and then subtract it from 180, you will get the measure of the remaining angle.
7.
8.: 180/3
9. x = 5
10. i dont know
i dont know = no time....
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
39 lang po
Step-by-step explanation:
samatolong sana lag Yan nyo po Ng brainlest
They get paid $22 a hour, so ur answer would be 374÷22=$17
