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kotegsom [21]
3 years ago
12

The decedent and her only child were involved in a plane crash. Neither was alive when the emergency team reached them. The chil

d, who died without a will, is survived by a spouse. The decedent is survived by only a brother. The decedent left a sizeable intestate estate and a life insurance policy naming the child the sole beneficiary. Who will share in the decedent’s estate, and who will take the insurance proceeds?
Business
1 answer:
kumpel [21]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The correct answer is: The deceden's brother will take the estate, but the child's spouse will take the insurance proceeds.

Explanation:

In California, a person who fails to survive a decedent by 120 hours is deemed to have predeceased the decedent for purposes of intestate succession, and the heirs are determined accordingly. However, for all other purposes in which the right of a person to succeed to a property interest is conditional upon surviving another (e.g., property passing by will, joint tenancy property, life insurance proceeds), if there is clear and convincing evidence that the person survived the decedent by even a short time, the person succeeds to the property. Here, the decedent was dead when help arrived, and the child survived until after she arrived at the hospital. Having survived the decedent, the child will take the insurance proceeds. Since the child died intestate, her spouse will take the proceeds through her estate. However, since the child did not survive the decedent by 120 hours, she is deemed to have predeceased the decedent for purposes of intestate succession. Thus, the decedent's brother is her only heir and will inherit her estate.

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2 years ago
A company has $91,000 in outstanding accounts receivable and it uses the allowance method to account for uncollectible accounts.
lilavasa [31]

Answer:

$5,360

Explanation:

The adjusting entry is shown below:

Bad debt expense  $5,360

       To Allowance for doubtful debts  $5,360

(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)

For recording this we debited the bad debt expense as it increased the expenses and credited the allowance for doubtful accounts as it reduced the assets

The computation is shown below:

= $91,000 × 5% + $810

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3 years ago
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3 years ago
If you had invested $100 in 1972 in the 500 stocks of the s&p500 index, how much would you have had in 2018?.
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If you had invested $100 in 1972 in the 500 stocks of the s&p500 index $1,612

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4 0
1 year ago
Tyler Tooling Company uses a job order cost system with overhead applied to products on the basis of machine hours. For the upco
inessss [21]

Answer:

<u>Over Applied Overhead      = $ 4000</u>

Actual Manufacturing Overhead = $45,000

Manufacturing Overhead Applied = $ 49,000

Explanation:

                                          Job 101        Job 102        Job 103

Total Direct materials      $ 19,200     $ 14,400       $ 9,600       $ 43,200

Direct labor                    $ 28,800       $ 11,200        $ 9,600      $ 49,600

Machine hours              1,000 hrs        4,000 hrs      2,000 hrs   7,000 hours

<u>Manufacturing overhead   $ 7000       $ 28,000      14,000 </u>

<u>Total                                $ 55,000         53,600        33,200</u>

Actual overhead costs recorded during the first month of operations totaled $45,000.

<u>Journal Entries </u>

<u>Sr. No                    Particulars                 Debit                   Credit</u>

Job 102              Finished Goods           53,600

                           Work In Process                                     53,600

A journal entry showing the transfer of Job 102 into Finished Goods Inventory upon its completion.

Job 101                Sales                         60,000

                        Cost Of Goods Sold                              60,000

Journal entries to recognize the sales revenue and cost of goods sold for Job 101.

Job 101              Cost of Goods Sold        55,000

                          Finished Goods Inventory                  55,000

Manufacturing Overhead Applied =   $ 7000 + $ 28,000+14,000 = $ 49,000

Job 101 = 1000/60,000 * $ 420,000= $ 7000

Job 102 = 4000/60,000 * $ 420,000= $ 28000

Job 103 = 2000/60,000 * $ 420,000= $ 14000

Actual Manufacturing Overhead = $45,000

<u>Over Applied Overhead      = $ 4000</u>

                                   

      Manufacturing Overhead  Accounts $ 4000  debit                  

              Cost of Goods Sold          $ 4000 Credit

Entry to transfer the balance of the Manufacturing Overhead account to Cost of Goods Sold.

(Entry to reduce the amount of Over applied Overhead)                                

                         

6 0
3 years ago
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