Answer:
f(x) represents the total expense and x represents the amount of peaches.
Step-by-step explanation:
yeah
Split up the integration interval into 4 subintervals:
The left and right endpoints of the -th subinterval, respectively, are
for , and the respective midpoints are
We approximate the (signed) area under the curve over each subinterval by
so that
We approximate the area for each subinterval by
so that
We first interpolate the integrand over each subinterval by a quadratic polynomial , where
so that
It so happens that the integral of reduces nicely to the form you're probably more familiar with,
Then the integral is approximately
Compare these to the actual value of the integral, 3. I've included plots of the approximations below.
Answer:
480
Step-by-step explanation:
Please use " ^ " to denote exponentiation:
<span>f(x) = –(x + 8)^2 – 1
Find the first derivative: f '(x) = -2(x+8)(1)
Set this = to 0: -2(x+8) = 0
solve for x: x = -8
Divide the number line into subintervals based upon x=-8:
(-inf, -8) and (-8, inf)
Choose a test value for x from each interval, e. g., -10 from the first interval and 20 from the second.
Subst. this test value into the derivative, shown above.
If the result is + the function is incr on that interval; if - the fn. is decr.
Questions welcome!</span>
The Answer is :31
Step by step :
160+ 51= 211
211-180=
31