Answer:
30%
Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
Here we considered a long term bond that time period should be 15 years or more
Now as we know that
Current yield is
= Current payment ÷ Pb
5% = Current payment ÷ $800
The Current payment is $40
Now the yield to maturity is
-$800 = $50 ÷ (1 + i) + $1,000 ÷ (1 + i) + $1,040 ÷ (1 + i)
So, i = 30%
The same is to be chosen
Answer:
a.$75,508
Explanation:
Newham Corporation
Break Even Sales = Fixed Expenses/ 1- (Variable Expenses/ Sales)
We combined the Break Even Sales by adding the sales of the two products and the variable expenses of the two products.
Break Even Sales =$46,060/1-($10,780+$18,470/$31,000+ $44,000)
Break Even Sales =$46,060/1-(29250/75,000)
Break Even Sales =$46,060/ 1-0.39
Break Even Sales =$46,060/ 0.61
Break Even Sales = $75,508.19
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Opportunity cost is the valje of the next best alternative forgone when a choice is made.
The balance in Discount on Bonds Payable that is applicable to bonds due in three years would be reported on the balance sheet in the section entitled of Long-term liabilities.
What is Long-term liabilities?
Long-term liabilities can be regarded as loans aa well as other financial obligations that the repayment schedule would be expected to last over a year.
Some of the examples long-term liabilities are;
- deferred revenues
- post-retirement healthcare liabilities.
- bonds payable
- long-term loans
- pension liabilities
It should be noted that balance in Discount on Bonds Payable that has a due time of three years would be reported at Long-term liabilities section.
Learn more about Long-term liabilities at:brainly.com/question/25596583