Answer:
Coupon (R) = 6.8% x 10,000 = $680
Face value (FV) = $10,000
Number of times coupon is paid in a year (m) = 2
No of years to maturity = 8 years
Yield to maturity (Kd) = 8% = 0.08
Po = R/2(1- (1 + r/m)-nm) + FV/ (1+r/m)n
m
r/m
Po = 680/2(1-(1+0.08/2)-8x2) + 10,000/(1 + 0.08/2
)8x2
0.08/2
Po = 340(1 - (1 + 0.04)-16) + 10,000/(1 + 0.04)16
0.04
Po = 340(1-0.5339) + 10,000/1.8730
0.04
Po = 3,961.85 + 5,339.03
Po = $9,300.88
Explanation:
The current market price of a bond is a function of the present value of semi-annual coupon and present value of the face value. The present value of semi-annual coupon is obtained by multiplying the coupon by the present value of annuity factor at 8% for 8 years. The present value of face value is obtained by discounting the face value at the discount factor for 8 years. The addition of the two gives the present value of the bond. All these explanations have been captured by the formula.
If sales volume increases and all other factors remain constant, then the Margin of safety will increase
Explanation:
The margin for safety (MOS) is described as an overall excess of current or expected revenue, expressed either in terms of currency or in units, or as a percentage of total revenues.
One of the main ways to increase the safety margin is through increasing the gross value per unit (if business conditions are favourable) and by reducing the variable cost per unit of the good. This can be accomplished by rising selling costs.
I believe the answer would be Intranet, but I am not 100% sure.
Answer:
b. rightward shift of aggregate demand and a leftward shift of aggregate supply.
Explanation:
The U.S. experience of strong economic growth, full employment, and price stability in the late 1990s and early 2000s can be explained by a rightward shift of aggregate demand and a leftward shift of aggregate supply.
The rightward shift of aggregate demand is as a result of strong economic growth and price stability.
