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Natalija [7]
3 years ago
11

What is the first step in writing f(x) = 3x2 + 6x – 8 in vertex form?

Mathematics
2 answers:
belka [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

D. Factor out 3 from the first two terms.

Step-by-step explanation:

According to the <em>Vertex</em><em> </em><em>Formula</em><em> </em>[<em>y = A(X - H)² + K</em>], -H gives you the OPPOSITE terms of what they really are, but in this case, this would not qualify, since the question is asking something totally unique. So, since 3 is your "A", you factor that out, and since 6 is a multiple of 3, it is easy to work with. Anyway, you get this:

y = 3(x + 1)² - 11

I hope this helps you out alot, and as always, I am joyous to assist anyone at any time.

kirza4 [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

  D. Factor out 3 from the first two terms.

Step-by-step explanation:

Vertex form is ...

  y = a(x -h)² +k

where (h, k) is the vertex and "a" is the vertical scale factor.

This equation expands to give ...

  y = ax² -2ahx + ah² +k

Factoring "a" from the terms involving x makes it easy to identify h and so finish putting the equation into vertex form. In this equation, that means the most appropriate first step is ...

  factor out 3 from the first two terms

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Round 145.98 to the nearest ones
Evgesh-ka [11]
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3 years ago
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The mailing list of an agency that markets scuba-diving trips to the Florida Keys contains 78% males and 22% females. The agency
choli [55]

Answer:

a) 0.98% probability that 17 of the 29 people are men.

b) 3.86% probability that the first woman is reached on the 8th call

Step-by-step explanation:

For each person chosen by the agency, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is a man, or it is a woman. The probability of selecting a man or a women in each trial is independent from other trials. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

(a) What is the probability that 17 of the 29 people are men?

This is P(X = 17) when n = 29, p = 0.78. So

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 17) = C_{29,17}.(0.78)^{17}.(0.22)^{12} = 0.0098

0.98% probability that 17 of the 29 people are men.

(b) What is the probability that the first woman is reached on the 8th call?

On the first 7 trials, all men, each with a 78% probability.

On the 8th trial, a women, with a 22% probability. So

P = (0.78)^{7}*0.22 = 0.0386

3.86% probability that the first woman is reached on the 8th call

4 0
3 years ago
What equation represents (0,3) (1, 1)
weqwewe [10]

your answer would be 2x - y + 3 = 0

3 0
2 years ago
Is ∆JKL ≅ ∆KJM ? Justify your answer below.
makkiz [27]

Answer:

Yes, the triangles are congruent by ASA

Step-by-step explanation:

we know that

If any two angles and the included side are the same in both triangles, then the triangles are congruent by Angle-Side-Angle (ASA)

In this problem

LK=MJ

∠KLJ=∠KMJ

∠LKJ=∠MJK

so

Two angles and the included side is equal in triangle JKL and triangle KJM

therefore

JKL≅KJM ----> by ASA

4 0
3 years ago
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