i am a troll im here just to mess with people after i do this i with go on my main account and answer you question
When thieves use your name and good credit rating to get cash or buy things, they are engaging in identity theft.
Identity theft can be define as impersonating another person by making use of that person personal information as their own.
A person using Identity theft can use some else identity to steal from innocent people after stealing the personal details of the person such as the person name so as to obtain cash or to defraud.
Identity theft is bad as it can damage someone image or reputation as the identity thieve can use to commit various crime by pretending to be you.
Inconclusion when thieves use your name and good credit rating to get cash or buy things, they are engaging in identity theft.
Learn more about identity theft here:brainly.com/question/17112484
To get the answer, first you have to identify at which rate is your taxable income falls. From the rage of <span>100,001 – 335,000, it have 39%. Then you will just simple multiply it.
Income x 0.39 = tax rate
the answer is </span><span>$</span>50,510.07.
Answer:
C. Debit Service Fee Expense for $6
Explanation:
McGregor only uses the services of the Credit Card company for their own activities, therefore, aside from the income of the service provided of $200, the credit card company will charge McGregor for the use of credit card services by the customer.
As such, since it is the decision of the customer to pay with a credit card, then the customer must bear the service fee expense of 3% of the cost of the service which is $6. Hence, Option C is correct. It means aside the $200 for the service, there is a need to debit service fee expense for $6
Option D is wrong because only $200 is service revenue, it has to be clearly stated that the 3% of $6 is different from the service revenue and should be debited as service fee.
If the customer is reluctant to make the payment, then there is an allowance to pay cash instead of using the credit card service.
Answer:
a) diluted earnings per share = 0
Explanation:
Diluted earnings per share (DEPS) is a recalculation of the basic EPS. The difference between DEPS and EPS is, EPS represents the current position of earnings per share. No changes in number shares and/or earnings in the future are incorporated in the basic EPS.
Whereas DEPS is a representation of not only the current position of earnings and shares but also includes the commitments an entity has already made whose occurrence may result in an increase/decrease in the amount of earnings and/or number of shares. For example, in the question Culver Company has issued 10-year convertible bonds which right now have no impact on basic EPS but if in the future these bond holders exercise their right of conversion, this would result in an increase in number of ordinary shares hence decreasing/diluting the basic EPS. The entities use DEPS to show shareholders the impact of such commitments on the basic EPS to improve their decision making.
So in 2017 none of the bonds were converted therefore no diluted earnings per share is calculated in 2017.
If all of the bonds were converted in 2017 the DEPS would have been calculated as follows:
The formula for calculating DEPS is as follows;
DEPS = (Net income + interest savings) ÷ number of ordinary shares + increase in ordinary shares as a result of conversion.
Tax savings as a result of conversion=$128400 ($2140000×6%). Because if bond holders convert into ordinary shares then Culver company will not have to pay them interest and hence the amount of interest is saved.
Increase in ordinary shares upon conversion= 29960 ($2140000÷$1000=2140 bonds. Each bond is convertible into 14 shares therefore, 2140×14=29960).
Now Lets calculate DEPS as follows;
DEPS = ($296000+$128400) ÷ 91000+29960
DEPS =$424400÷120960
DEPS = $3.5
