Answer:
1. LM < PN
2. AD < DC
3. m<CAB < m<CBA
4. m<1 = m<2
Step-by-step explanation:
Recall: an angle measure is relative to the length of the opposite side. That is, the longer the side opposite to an angle, the larger the measure of that angle and vice versa.
1. LM is opposite to <LNM,
PN is opposite to <NLP
m<LNM is less than m<NLP, therefore,
LM < PN
2. AD is opposite to <ABD
DC is opposite to <DBC
m<ABD is less than m<DBC, therefore,
AD < DC
3. m<CAB is opposite to CB
m<CBA is opposite to CA
CB is less than CA, therefore,
m<CAB < m<CBA
4. The side opposite to <1 is congruent to the side opposite to <2.
Therefore,
m<1 = m<2
Answer:
B is the only one i know, sorry.
Step-by-step explanation:
Hope this helped
Answer:
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Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
DE given is
y''+8y'+15y=0, y(0)=0, y'(0)=1
Take Laplace on the DE
We get
Simplify to get
Y(s) = ![\frac{1}{2}[ {\frac{1}{s+3} -\frac{1}{s+5} }]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%5B%20%7B%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7Bs%2B3%7D%20-%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7Bs%2B5%7D%20%7D%5D)
Take inverse
