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almond37 [142]
4 years ago
9

At the beginning of the current year, Sandy Brewer had a zero basis in her 38 shares of stock in Lindlee, an S corporation, a ze

ro basis in a $5,000 note from Lindlee, and a $7,400 carryforward of a prior year ordinary loss from Lindlee that she was unable to deduct because of the basis limitation. Early in February of the current year, Sandy was notified by Lindlee’s attorney that the corporation was bankrupt. Consequently, Lindlee was defaulting on its $5,000 debt to Sandy, and Sandy’s 38 shares of stock were worthless.
Describe the consequences to Sandy of the worthlessness of her Lindlee investments (note, stock, and loss carryforward).
Business
2 answers:
Alona [7]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

As in her worthless note,Sandy has a zero adjusted basis. Her bad debt deduction is Nil according to Section 166 (b).

Section 166(g)(1) states that her capital loss realized on the deemed sale of this stoke is also nil because of zero adjusted basis in her worthless stock.

According to Reg. Sec.1.1366-2(a)(5) if all of her stock is disposed by an S corporation shareholder and loss carryforward attributable to the Section 1366 (d) basis. Limitaitons are permanently disaalowed.

Hence, her $7,400 ordinary loss carryforward can never be deducted by Sandy.

Sandy has no 2012 tax consequences from worthlessness of her Lindlee investments

andrew11 [14]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Explanation:

The Section 166 (5) gives the terrible obligation reasoning is zero because of the examination has a zero balanced premise in her useless note. Segment 166 (g)(1) gives that her misfortune acknowledged on request offer of this stock is zero because of she had zero balanced premise in her useless stock.

Reg. sec 1.1366-2(0)(5) gives that if a S organization investor discards every last bit of her stock, the impediment is for all time refused at any misfortune convey forward inferable from the area 1366(d) premise.

In this way, she can never deduct her $7400 standard misfortune convey forward. In any case, she has no present year charge results from useless of her interest in Lindlee Inc.

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weqwewe [10]
Conduction because heat is directly transmitted through a substance where there is a difference of temp. without movement of material :)
6 0
3 years ago
Which of the following companies has the lowest degree of leverage?
LiRa [457]

The firm with a 20% Debt and 80% Equity has the lowest degree of leverage.

<h3>What is a degree of leverage?</h3>

This means  how much a firm operating income changes in response to a change in sales.

Because the Firm C has a low debt, this means its has the lowest degree of leverage when compared to others.

Therefore, the Option C is correct.

Missing options "90% Debt, 10% Equity

30% Debt, 70% Equity

20% Debt, 80% Equity

50% Debt, 50% Equity"

Read more about degree of leverage

<em>brainly.in/question/8720374</em>

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4 0
3 years ago
Puget Sound Divers is a company that provides diving services such as underwater ship repairs to clients in the Puget Sound area
notsponge [240]

Answer:

$50,094.8

Explanation:

Flexible Budget are budget prepared by taking the actual activity level achieved at standard cost/price. WHILE

q is taken as the actual level of activity which is 240 diving hours.

Puget Sound Divers

Flexible Budget For the Month Ended May 31

Revenue ($440.00 ×240) $105,600

Expenses:

Wages and salaries ($11,800 + $128.00×240) $42,520

Supplies ($3.00 ×240) $720

Equipment rental ($2,100 + $22.00 ×240) $7,380

Insurance ($4,000) $4,000

Miscellaneous ($530 + $1.48×240) $885.2

Total expense $55,505.2

Net operating income ($105,600- $55,505.2) $ 50,094.8

Net operating income =Revenue - Total expenses

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the value of a firm with initial dividend Div 1​, growing for n years​ (i.e., until year n plus 1​) at rate g 1 and afte
finlep [7]

Answer:

stock price = (Div 1 / r - g1) x {1 - [(1 + g1) / (1 + r)]ⁿ}    +    (Div 1 / r - g2) x [(1 + g1) / (1 + r)]ⁿ⁻¹

Explanation:

since the company will first grow at g1 for n years, and then at g2 forever, we need to first determine the present value of the dividends growing at g1 for n years:

present value of the dividends during n = (Div 1 / r - g1) x {1 - [(1 + g1) / (1 + r)]ⁿ}

e.g. div = $2, n = 5 years, g1 = 8%, r = 12%

(2 / 12% - 8%) x {1 - [(1 + 8%) / (1 + 12%)]⁵} = 50 x 0.166263 = $8.31

now we find the formula to calculate the present value for the growing perpetuity g2 at n - 1 years:

= (Div 1 / r - g2) x [(1 + g1) / (1 + r)]ⁿ⁻¹

following the same example but changing g1 for g2, and g2 = 5%

= (2 / 12% - 5%) x [(1 + 5%) / (1 + 12%)]⁵⁻¹ = 28.5714 x 0.772476 = $22.07

we now add both parts to finish our example = $8.31 + $22.07 = $30.38

8 0
3 years ago
Ron Santana is interested in buying the stock of First National Bank. While the bank expects no growth in the near future, Ron i
algol13

Answer:

$38.375

Explanation:

In this question, we apply the Gordon model which is shown below:

Maximum price = Next year dividend ÷ (Required rate of return - growth rate)

= $6.14 ÷ 0.16

= $38.375

We simply divide the dividend rate by the required rate of return so that the accurate and maximum price can come. The growth rate is not given so we do not consider it.

4 0
4 years ago
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