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AlekseyPX
3 years ago
14

How do you convert 56 kilometers to inches

Mathematics
2 answers:
Margaret [11]3 years ago
4 0
In = km ÷ 0.0000254 This is the conversion. So 56 km / 0.0000254 = your answer.
Eddi Din [679]3 years ago
3 0
First, convert the kilometers to meters. The unit km will be on the bottom of the ratio, and meters on the top. Since the km is the larger unit, that one will be equal to 1, and the meters will be equal to 1000 (as the prefix kilo- refers to 1000). You should have then 56,000 meters. Next, you use the conversion of meters to inches, which is 1 meter for every 39.3701 inches. Place meters on the bottom of the ratio to cancel out your units, and make it equal to 1. Then place your inches on top, which is 39.3701 inches. The last step is to multiply your 56,000 meters by your value for inches. This will give you the number of inches that are equal to 56 km. This will be approximately 2,204,725.6 inches. Hope this helps!
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Answer:  The required matrix is

T=\left[\begin{array}{ccc}-1&3\\2&4\end{array}\right] .

Step-by-step explanation:  We are given to find the transition matrix from the bases B to B' as given below :

B = {(-1,2), (3, 4)) and B' = {(1, 0), (0, 1)}.

Let us consider two real numbers a, b such that

(-1,2)=a(1,0)+b(0,1)\\\\\Rightarrow (-1,2)=(a,b)\\\\\Rightarrow a=-1,b=2.

Again, let us consider reals c and d such that

(3,4)=c(1,0)+d(0,1)\\\\\Rightarrow (3,4)=(c,d)\\\\\Rightarrow c=3,d=4.

Therefore, the transition matrix is given by

T=\left[\begin{array}{ccc}-1&3\\2&4\end{array}\right] .

Thus, the required matrix is

T=\left[\begin{array}{ccc}-1&3\\2&4\end{array}\right] .

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3 years ago
Leona tracks her calories burned while boxing. The number of calories she burns is expressed by the function c(t) = 425t, where
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a taxi cab charges a flat fee of $2.00, plus $0.25 for every mile driven. If the fare comes to $7.75, what equation could be use
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4 0
4 years ago
If p varies directly with q, and p = 10 when q = 2, what is the value of p when q = 20?. . Is the answer 40?
meriva
NO, THE ANSWER IS NOT 40.

The solution to the problem is as follows:

If they vary directly, their ratio is always equal to the same number. 
Since 10/2 = 5, any p/q has to = 5. 
<span>So p/20 = 5 
</span>
<span>p = 5 x 20 = 100
</span>
I hope my answer has come to your help. Thank you for posting your question here in Brainly.
6 0
4 years ago
Can guys please help me, please solve E
Eddi Din [679]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

h(x)=12/x

h(a)= 12/a  ( a is a variable number just replace x with a)

4 0
3 years ago
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