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Vilka [71]
3 years ago
7

Consider an income guarantee program with an income guarantee of $6,000 and a benefit reduction rate of 50%. A person can work u

p to 2,000 hours per year at $8 per hour. A. Draw the person’s budget constraint with the income guarantee. B. Suppose that the income guarantee rises to $9,000 but with a 75% reduction rate. Draw the new budget constraint. C. Which of these two income guarantee programs is more likely to discourage work? Explain.

Business
1 answer:
andriy [413]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

A. Please see attachment .

B.Please see attachment . B) Benefits will end under these conditions when earned income is $9,000/.75 = $12,000, just as shown in a. The difference is that the all-leisure income is higher, but the slope of the line segment from 500 hours of leisure to 2,000 hours of leisure is flatter.

C. (C) A higher income guarantee with a higher reduction rate is more likely to discourage work for two reasons

Explanation:

(C) A higher income guarantee with a higher reduction rate is more likely to discourage work for two reasons.  First, not working at all yields a higher income.  Second, a person who works less than 1,500 hours will be allowed to keep much less of his or her earned income when the effective tax rate is 75%. With a 75% benefit reduction rate, the effective hourly wage is only $2 per hour (25% of $8).

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Answer:

The correct answer would be, System.

Explanation:

The restoration of the Ryan Home is an example of a System.

A System is a set of interrelated activities, set of tasks working together, as a part of the whole mechanism. Small tasks, departments, works, jobs, duties, make a system.

In this question, The restoration company is acting as a system, as they are providing assistance with the Ryan Family from the initial clean up to the moving back in with the family after the whole fire stuff. All of the restoration company's interrelated parts working together to accomplish a goal, which is an example of a System.

5 0
3 years ago
In practice, a common way to value a share of stock when a company pays dividends is to value the dividends over the next five y
KiRa [710]

Answer:

Explanation:

Calculation for 5th year dividend.

Year Dividend Growth Dividend

1 1.23 1.18 1.45

2 1.45 1.18 1.71

3 1.71 1.18 2.02

4 2.02 1.18 2.38

5 2.38 1.18 2.81

Now we find EPS for 5th year through payout ratio.

EPS5 = D5 / Payout ratio

EPS5 = $2.81 / 0.30

EPS5 = $9.37

Calculation for price.

P0 = Benchmark PE ratio x EPS5

P0 = 18 ($9.37)

P0 = $168.66

B. What is the stock price today.

Year Dividend Table value at 14% PV of dividend

1 1.45 0.8771 1.27

2 1.71 0.7694 1.32

3 2.02 0.6749 1.36

4 2.38 0.5920 1.41

5 171.47 0.5193 89.04

Total 94.40

Stock price today = $94.40

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
$800 of supplies were purchased at the beginning of the month and the Supplies account was increased. As of the end of the perio
krok68 [10]

Answer:

a.Supplies expense would be debited for $600.

Explanation:

Assuming there is no opening Inventory:

End of period supplies balance = Opening balance  + purchases in the period - Expense for the period

200 = 0  + 800 - Expense for the period

Expense for the period = 800 - 200

Expense for the period = 600

So the correct option is a.Supplies expense would be debited for $600.

8 0
3 years ago
. Ellen has a thirty-year mortgage with level monthly payments. The amount of principal in her 82nd payment is $259.34, and the
Mila [183]

Answer:

Explanation:

See attached file for answer

7 0
3 years ago
Bond P is a premium bond with a coupon rate of 9 percent. Bond D has a coupon rate of 5 percent and is currently selling at a di
Firdavs [7]

Answer:

a) 7% as their market price will adjsut to give the same yield as the market

b) bond P = -10.17

 bonds D  = 10.07

Explanation:

we have to calcualte the price variation of the bonds from now (10 years to maturity) to next year (9 years)

Bond P

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 90.000

time 10

rate 0.07

90 \times \frac{1-(1+0.07)^{-10} }{0.07} = PV\\

PV $632.1223

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   1,000.00

time   10.00

rate  0.07

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.07)^{10} } = PV  

PV   508.35

PV c $632.1223

PV m  $508.3493

Total $1,140.4716

then, at time = 9

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 90.000

time 9

rate 0.07

90 \times \frac{1-(1+0.07)^{-9} }{0.07} = PV\\

PV $586.3709

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   1,000.00

time   9.00

rate  0.07

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.07)^{9} } = PV  

PV   543.93

PV c $586.3709

PV m  $543.9337

Total $1,130.3046

Capital loss: 1,130.30 - 1,140.47 = -10.17

We repeat the process for bond D

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 50.000

time 10

rate 0.07

50 \times \frac{1-(1+0.07)^{-10} }{0.07} = PV\\

PV $351.1791

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   1,000.00

time   10.00

rate  0.07

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.07)^{10} } = PV  

PV   508.35

PV c $351.1791

PV m  $508.3493

Total $859.5284

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 50.000

time 9

rate 0.07

50 \times \frac{1-(1+0.07)^{-9} }{0.07} = PV\\

PV $325.7616

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   1,000.00

time   9.00

rate  0.07

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.07)^{9} } = PV  

PV   543.93

PV c $325.7616

PV m  $543.9337

Total $869.6954

Capital gain: 869.70 - 859.53 = 10.07

6 0
3 years ago
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