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ELEN [110]
3 years ago
13

The first four ionization energies in kj/mol of a certain second- row element are 900, 1757, 14,849, and 21,007. what is the lik

ely identity of the element?
Mathematics
2 answers:
earnstyle [38]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Beryl­lium (Be)

Step-by-step explanation:

The ionization energy is the minimum energy needed to take out an electron completely from the valence shell of an atom in its gaseous state.

The <u>first, second, third and the fourth ionization energy</u> is the energy associated with the removal of first, second, third and the fourth electron, respectively.

The given ionization energies (kJ/mol) of a chemical element belonging to row 2 or period 2 are: 900; 1757; 14,849; and 21,007

Since, the<u> third ionization energy (14,849 kJ/mol) is extremely high </u>than the second. So the element must<u> belong to </u><u>group 2 </u><u>of the periodic table.</u>

<u>Therefore, the chemical element that belongs to the period 2 and row 2 of the periodic table is Beryl­lium (Be).</u>

ki77a [65]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:<em> Berylium (Be)</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

The <em>first ionisation energy</em> is the energy required to remove one mole of the outermost electrons from one mole of gaseous atoms.

<em />

<em> Second, third, and fourth ionisation</em> energies are the energies required to remove the succesive mole of electrons of the same atoms

Successive ionisation energies are larger because, <em>once you have removed the first electron you get a positive ion</em>. Removing an electron (which is a negative charge) from a positive ion is more difficult than removing it from the neutral atom. And removing an electron from an ion with 2⁺ or  3⁺ charges is increasingly difficult.

When you find a large jump from one inoization energy to the succesive one you can predict that you are removing an electron from a closer to the nucleus orbital.

Berylium has atomic number 4. So, the number of electrons of the neutral atom is also 4. Hence, the electron configuration of beryllium is 1s² 2s².

From the given data, <em>the first four ionization energies in kJ/mol are 900, 1757, 14,849, and 21,007</em>.

From that you can calculate the following changes in the ionization energies:

  • From first to second: 1,757 kJ/mol - 900 kJ/mol = 857 kJ/mol
  • From second to third: 14,849 kJ/mol - 1,757kJ/mol = 13,092 kJ/mol
  • From third to fourth: 21,007 kJ/mol - 14,849 kJ/mol = 6,158 kJ/mol

And now you can see that there is a larger jump in the energy, a greater change, required to remove the third electron.

That is explained because the first and second electron are removed from the orbital 2s while the third electron has to be removed from the orbital 1s which is closer to the nucleus. This third electron is more strongly attracted by the nucleus and substantially  more energy is required to accomplish this work.

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uysha [10]

Answer:

61.84%

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the cost of the box be x. Since the price of the box and the pen is Rs 80, the pen's price can be represented as 80 - x. The box is sold at a ten percent profit, and an added ten percent is equal to 1.1. Therefore, the price the box sells at is 1.1(x). A 20% loss is the same a keeping 80% or multiplying by 0.8. This means the pen sold at 0.8(80 - x). Now, we are given the box went for Rs 28 more than the pen, so we can create an equation:

1.1x = 0.8(80 - x) + 28

We can simplify and solve:

1.1x = 64 - 0.8x + 28

1.9x = 92

x = 92/1.9

x = 920/19

The cost of the box after the increase would be 1.1(920/19) and the pen would be 0.8(80 - 920/19).

The sum of these two can be written as a percent x of 80.

80x = 0.8(80 - 920/19) + 1.1(920/19)

80x = 64 - 0.8(920/19) + 1.1(920/9)

80x = 64 - 0.3(920/19)

80x = 64 - 276/19

80x = 940/19

x = 940/1520

x = 0.6184

This is 61.84%

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Your gross pay will be $1595.2 for each paycheck

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* Multiplication operation: Multiplies values on either side of the operator

For example 12*2 = 24

You have accepted a job offer at an annual salary of $36,980.

This salary includes a year-end bonus of $2900

So your gross pay = 36980 + 2900 = 15952

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12 months × 2 checks = 24 paychecks

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mixas84 [53]

Answer:

The probability that a person with restless leg syndrome has fibromyalgia is 0.1833.

Step-by-step explanation:

Denote the events as follows:

<em>F</em> = a person with fibromyalgia

<em>R</em> = a person having restless leg syndrome

The information provided is as follows:

P (R | F) = 0.33

P (R | F') = 0.03

P (F) = 0.02

Consider the tree diagram attached below.

Compute the probability that a person with restless leg syndrome has fibromyalgia as follows:

P(F|R)=\frac{P(R|F)P(F)}{P(R|F)P(F)+P(R|F')P(F')}\\\\=\frac{(0.33\times 0.02)}{(0.33\times 0.02)+(0.03\times 0.98)}\\\\=0.183333\\\\\approx 0.1833

Thus, the probability that a person with restless leg syndrome has fibromyalgia is 0.1833.

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