The answer is $48.
The seller of product a has no idle capacity and can sell all it can produce at $60 per unit. outlay (variable) cost is $12. $48 is the opportunity cost, assuming the seller sells internally
It is calculated as follows:
Opportunity cost= Production cost- Outlay cost
= 60-12
=$48
Opportunity costs represent the potential benefits which any individual or investor, or any business misses out on when choosing one alternative over another.
Because the opportunity costs are generally unseen by definition, they can be easily overlooked. Understanding of the potential missed opportunities when any business or any individual chooses one investment over another investment allows for better decision making.
To know more about opportunity cost here:
brainly.com/question/13036997
#SPJ4
In India, the majority of properties are sold with the help of a real estate broker or agent. When the broker helps a seller and buyer get in touch with each other and both the parties agree to engage in the transaction, then both the parties are required to pay a certain %age of the property value as a fee to the real estate broker. Read below to know about the real estate broker commission rates India:
There are no specific guidelines laid for the commission paid to real estate brokers. In India, real estate agents usually ask the seller and the buyer to pay 1-2% of the deal value as their commission, also known as the real estate brokerage fee.
Answer:
The price of the stock today is $42.94
Explanation:
The price of a stock whose dividends are expected to grow at a constant rate is calculated using the constant growth model of Dividend Discount model approach. It bases the price of the stock on the present value of the expected future dividends. The price today under this model is calculated as follows,
P0 = D0 * (1+g) / r - g
Where,
- D0 * (1+g) is the D1 or the dividend for the next year
- r is the required rate of return
- g is the growth rate in dividends
P0 = 4 * (1+0.052) / (0.15 - 0.052)
P0 = $42.938 rounded off to $42.94
Answer:
$700,000
Explanation:
The portion of the long term note payable that is due within one year must be reported as current portion of long term debt (CPLTD) and must be included under current assets. In this case, the current portion of the long term debt is $100,000, so the portion that must be reported as long term debt is $800,000 - $100,000 = $700,000.